CSS MPT MOCK-I

Note: Select the correct answer and Fill in the appropriate Box □ on the Answer Sheet
TIME: 200 Minutes
SECTION-I )‫(االسایمت‬ 20 Marks

1. Ghazwa _____ was fought 3 times.

A. Tabook
B. Khyber
C. Badr
D. Hunain
2. First Azan was called out in_______ A.H.
A. 3 A.H.
B. 2 A.H.
C. 1 A.H.
D. 4 A.H.
3. Hazrat Khadija (RA) belonged to the tribe of __________.
A. Banu Hashim
B. Banu Khazeema
C. Banu Asad
D. Banu Atiyah
4. When Hazrat Abdul Muttalib died?
A. 578 A.D
B. 580 A.D
C. 582 A.D
D. 584 A.D
E. 585 A.D
5. The first revealed book was_____________?
A. Injeel
B. Zaboor
C. Taurat
D. Quran
6. Hazrat Yahya (A.S) met with Holy Prophet (SAW) on the ________ heaven?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 7th
7. What is the name of the Surah that was last revealed on the Quran?
A. Al- Nas
B. Al- Nasr
C. Al- Alaq
D. Al- Falaq
8. When was the Qibla changed?
A. 2nd Hijri
B. 3rd Hijri
C. 1st Hijri
D. 4th Hijri
9. Boat of Hazrat Noah (A.S) is called ________?
A. Curve
B. Arc
C. Arrow
D. Arrec
10. What is the meaning of Khums (‫?)خمس‬
 A. One sixth
B. One fifth
C. One fourth
D. One seventh
11. What was the number of clauses of Charter of Madina?
A. 45
B. 46
C. 47
D. 48
12. Who is called Saqi-e-ZamZam?
A. Hazrat Abu Bakar (R.A)
B. Hazrat Abbas (R.A)
C. Hazrat Ali-ul-Murtaza (R.A)
D. Imam Hussain (R.A)
13. At the time of his assassination, which Surah was Hazrat Usman (RA) reportedly reciting from the Quran?
A) Surah Al-Baqarah
B) Surah Yaseen
C) Surah Al-Mulk
D) Surah Al-Kahf
14. How many Hafiz (memorizers of the Quran) were martyred in the Battle of Yamama?
A) 50
B) 700
C) 100
D) 500
15. Who was the commander of the Muslim forces in the Battle of Qadisiyyah?
A) Khalid ibn al-Walid
B) Sa'd ibn Abi Waqqas
C) Amr ibn al-As
D) Abu Ubaidah ibn al-Jarrah
16. Which Ghazwa (battle) is referred to as "Jais-ul-Usra" (the Expedition of Hardship) in the Quran?
A) Ghazwa Badr
B) Ghazwa Uhud
C) Ghazwa Tabuk
D) Ghazwa Khaybar
17. In which Hijri year was the Battle of Jamal (Jang-e-Jamal) fought?
A) 35 AH
B) 36 AH
C) 37 AH
D) 38 AH
18. In the Quran, what is the meaning of "Surah An-Naml"?
A) The Bees
B) The Ants
C) The Spider
D) The Stars
19. How many mosques are mentioned by name in the Quran?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
20. "Amin ul-Ummat" is the title of which companion of the Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him)?
A) Abu Bakr (RA)
B) Umar ibn al-Khattab (RA)
C) abu Obadiah bin al jarrah (RA)
D) Ali ibn Abi Talib (RA)
‫‪SECTION-II‬‬ ‫(اردو)‬ ‫‪20 Marks‬‬

‫اردورثنںیمالعہماابقكیکیلہپبااقدعہنصنیفاکبالےہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.21‬‬
‫د)امدعبالقیصاادبات‬ ‫ج)امدعبالیغیاات‬ ‫ب)ااصتقدبات‬ ‫ا)ملعااللقیصااد‬
‫’’آبایحت‘‘ سکادییکفینصتےہ؟‬ ‫‪.22‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)دیجمادجم‬ ‫ب)ومالبادمحمنیسحآزاد‬ ‫ا)ومولیدبعاقحل‬
‫اردویکوہشمرمظن’’آدیمباہم‘‘ سکیکےہ؟‬ ‫‪.23‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)ریظناربکآبادی‬ ‫ب)ریمیقتریم‬ ‫ا)ریماسین‬
‫’’اردو‘‘ زباماکظفلسےسےلہپسکہگجاامعتسكوہا؟‬ ‫‪.24‬‬
‫د)تزکباتزیںیم‬ ‫ج)آنیئاربکی‬ ‫ب) مہاویںباہم‬ ‫ا)دیلںیم‬
‫وہوکنالعفےہوجاےنپینعموتہنرےھکرگماےنپےسےلہپآےنواےللعفےکینعمایبمرکے؟‬ ‫‪.25‬‬
‫د)لعفرعموف‬ ‫ج)لعفرمبک‬ ‫ب)لعفوہجمك‬ ‫ا)لعفادمادی‬
‫زتز‪،‬زتز‪،‬شیپوکاردوںیماہکاجباےہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.26‬‬
‫د)ارعاب‬ ‫ج)ےطقن‬ ‫ب)داتزے‬ ‫ا)رومزواواقف‬
‫’’باشلرکبا‘‘ احمورہےہاسےکینعمںیہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.27‬‬
‫رکب‬
‫د)رگہیزاری ا‬ ‫ج)جزہبوذلت‬ ‫ب)قشعووشق‬ ‫رکب‬
‫ا)دقمہمداتز ا‬
‫جدیداقتیلبدیقنتاکآاغزسکےنایک؟‬ ‫‪.28‬‬
‫د)رمزااغل‬ ‫ج)العہمیلبشامعنین‬ ‫ب)ریمیقتریم‬ ‫ا)رسدیسا دمام‬
‫رضبالثمللمکمرکںی‪:‬اقیضےکرھگےکوچےہیھب۔۔۔۔۔۔۔‬ ‫‪.29‬‬
‫د)ےچک‬ ‫ج)ایسےن‬ ‫ب)بادام‬ ‫ا)اچالک‬
‫ہتکسیکالعموکیسنےہ؟‬ ‫‪.30‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)‪/‬‬ ‫ب)؟‬ ‫ا)‪،‬‬
‫ہلمجیکدریگتسرکںی‪:‬‬ ‫‪.31‬‬
‫ا)فزنیقیےکدرایمماعمدہہوہایگ‬
‫ب)دوونںفزوقیںےکدرایمماعمدہہوہایگ‬
‫ج)دوونںفزنیقیےکدرایمماعمدہہوہایگ‬
 ‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬
‫ولصاکاضتمدےہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.32‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)فزی‬ ‫ب)رجہ‬ ‫ا)الماقت‬
‫درجذلیرعشسکشارعےسوسنمبےہ؟‬ ‫‪.33‬‬
‫ےلاسسنیھبآہتسہہکبازکےہتہباکل‬
‫آافقیکاساکرہگہشیشرگیاک‬
‫د)ا دمدنمیاقیمس‬ ‫ج)رمزااغل‬ ‫ب)ریمیقتریم‬ ‫ا)ریمدرد‬
‫وقادعیکروےسوہظفلوجوخدوتیسکظفلےسہنالکنوہاہتبلاسےسظفلنبتکسوہںالہکباےہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.34‬‬
‫د)دصمر‬ ‫ج)قتشم‬ ‫ب)رحوف‬ ‫ا)اجدم‬
‫’’امورا‘‘ سکاکرعشیومجمہ ہعےہ؟‬ ‫‪.35‬‬
‫د)باوندقہیس‬ ‫ج)اافشقا دم‬ ‫ب)دبعاہللنیسح‬ ‫ا)م۔ل۔رادش‬
‫رنیم‪،‬باریکی‪،‬دیباریرگارمئیکروےسںیہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.36‬‬
‫امج‬
‫د)امس د‬ ‫ج)امستیفیک‬ ‫ب)امسرظفاکمم‬ ‫ا)امسرظفزامں‬
‫وکنظفلدرسںیہن؟‬
‫درجذلیںیم ا‬ ‫‪.37‬‬
‫د)ریحاین‬ ‫ج)ریحایگن‬ ‫ب)ضیمق‬ ‫ا)ااسیدہ‬
‫’’وچباك‘‘ سکاکومجمہ ہعےہ؟‬ ‫‪.38‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)ا دمدنمیاقیمس‬ ‫ب)رنتباھترسشار‬ ‫ا)رپمیدنچ‬
‫رظنماگنریاکایبمالہکباےہ‪:‬‬ ‫‪.39‬‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہ‬ ‫ج)ایقسآرایئ‬ ‫ب)ابمہغل‬ ‫ا)لیخت‬
‫رضبالثمللمکمرکںی‪:‬‬ ‫‪.40‬‬
‫وہیگںےکاسھت۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔یھبسپاجباےہ۔‬
‫د)امںیمےسوکیئںیہن‬ ‫ج)نھگ‬ ‫ب)اسامم‬ ‫ا)یھگ‬
 SECTION-III (English) 50 Marks

Choose an option for the blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
41. The political leader was criticised for his tactics, which many believedundermined public
trust.
a. audacious
b. Surreptitious
c. Candid
d. ingenuous
42. The astronomer‟s new theory about planetary orbits was met with by thescientific
community.
a. Approbation
b. Repudiation
c. Aversion
d. revelation
43. Even after his official apology, his attitude made many question hissincerity.
a. Contrite
b. Penitent
c. Apathetic
d. conciliatory
44. She felt when her friend dismissed her concerns so abruptly.
a. Elated
b. Mollified
c. Indignant
d. lethargic
45. The administration had to their plan after facing significant publicopposition.
a. Invigorate
b. Redouble
c. Placate
d. retract
Read the following passage and and choose the best suitable option for thequestion/statements.
In recent years, the global discourse on urbanisation has shifted significantly. Cities are now home to more than half of the
world‟s population, with an anticipated increase in this figureover the coming decades. The growth of urban areas brings both
opportunities and challenges. On one hand, cities foster economic development, innovation, and cultural exchange, acting as
hubs of commerce and social interaction. They offer enhanced access to healthcare, education, and employment opportunities,
which attract millions seeking a betterquality of life. On the other hand, rapid urbanisation has led to a host of complex issues
thatgovernments and city planners are struggling to address.
Environmental degradation is a critical concern, as expanding urban areas often encroach on natural ecosystems, contributing
to the loss of biodiversity. Additionally, urban centres are responsible for significant greenhouse gas emissions, exacerbating
global climate change.
With increased population density, cities also face the strain of insufficient infrastructure, leading to inadequate housing,
traffic congestion, and an overburdened public transportation system. Social inequalities are often amplified in urban settings,
where wealth disparity and the lack of affordable housing marginalise vulnerable populations.
Innovative urban planning solutions, such as green architecture, smart technology, and public-private partnerships, are being
explored to mitigate these challenges. While these strategies show promise, implementing them at scale requires substantial
investment, politicalcommitment, and societal cooperation. As the world becomes increasingly urbanised, it is imperative that
policymakers prioritise sustainable development practices to ensure cities remain livable and resilient. Only through proactive
planning and equitable policies can urban areas continue to thrive while addressing the pressing environmental and social
challenges they face.
46. According to the passage, urban areas are often associated with:
a. Decline in economic growth
b. Improvements in social equality
c. Cultural and economic development
 d. Decreased access to healthcare
47. The passage mentions that urbanisation can lead to all of the following issuesexcept:
a. Increased biodiversity
b. Environmental degradation
c. Social inequality
d. Infrastructure strain.
48. Based on the passage, one significant challenge urban centres face is:
a. An abundance of natural ecosystems
b. Limited innovation in technology
c. Overpopulation and lack of infrastructure
d. A decline in cultural exchange
49. What is implied about the impact of urbanisation on climate change?
a. It has minimal effect.
b. It contributes to climate change through greenhouse gas emissions.
c. It helps reduce carbon footprints.
d. It only affects rural areas.
50. According to the passage, one way to address urbanisation challenges is by:
a. Decreasing urban population density
b. Relying solely on private investment
c. Developing sustainable urban planning strategies
d. Limiting healthcare and educational access
51. According to the passage, why is substantial investment required for sustainableurban development?
a. To reduce social inequalities completely
b. To improve healthcare and educational facilities
c. To implement green architecture and smart technology on a large scale
d. To limit the expansion of urban areas into rural regions

Choose an option that is correct according to the standard use of English.

52.
a. I went to the shop to buy a loaf of bread.
b. I went to shop to buy a loaf of bread.
c. I went at shop to buy a loaf of bread.
d. I went in shop to buy a loaf of bread.
53.
a. Everyone arrived on time for the meeting.
b. Everyone arrive on time for the meeting.
c. Everyone arrives on time for the meeting.
d. Everyone was arrive on time for the meeting.
54.
a. The manager suggested that we postpone the meeting.
b. The manager suggested that we postponed the meeting.
c. The manager suggested that we postponing the meeting.
d. The manager suggested that we postpones the meeting.
55.
a. Either of these roads leads to the village.
a. Either of these road leads to the village.
b. Either of these roads lead to the village.
c. Either of these roads leading to the village.
56.
a. There are fewer cars on the road today.
b. There are less cars on the road today.
c. There is fewer cars on the road today.
d. There are few cars on the road today.
57.
a. Each of the participants was given a certificate.
 b. Each of the participants were given a certificate.
c. Each of the participant was given a certificate.
d. Each of the participants is given a certificate.
58.
a. My brother and I went to the library yesterday.
b. My brother and me went to the library yesterday.
c. Me and my brother went to the library yesterday.
d. My brother and I go to the library yesterday.
59.
a. She will come to the party, won't she?
b. She will come to the party, would she?
c. She will come to the party, isn't she?
d. She will come to the party, won't he?
60.
a. I haven‟t seen her since last week.
b. I haven't saw her since last week.
c. I haven‟t seen her for last week.
d. I haven‟t saw her since last week.
61.
a. Despite the rain, we went for a walk.
b. Despite of the rain, we went for a walk.
c. Despite the rain, we go for a walk.
d. Despite the rain, we were going for a walk.
62.
a. The children were playing outside.
b. The children was playing outside.
c. The children were plays outside.
d. The children are playing outside.
63.
a. He has been living in London for three years.
b. He is living in London since three years.
c. He has been living in London since three years.
d. He have been living in London for three years.
64.
a. He was punished for breaking the vase, but his actions were not as muchsevere as I expected.
b. He was punished for breaking the vase, but his actions were not so severe as Iexpected.
c. He was punished for breaking the vase, but his actions were not as severe as Iexpected.
d. He was punished for breaking the vase, but his actions were not severe as Iexpected.
65. Choose the sentence with an adverb:
a. She completed the task with exceptional skill.
b. He speaks very articulate and clearly.
c. She was utterly disappointed by the news.
d. He arrived at the station early enough to catch the train.
66. Choose the sentence with a Proper Adjective:
a. The company's headquarters are located in New York City.
b. She is reading a fascinating novel.
c. They visited the Egyptian museum during their trip.
d. I prefer Italian coffee over French coffee.
67. Choose the sentence with an Adverb of Time:
a. She answered the question with great precision.
b. They will arrive tomorrow morning.
c. I have never seen such a beautiful sight.
d. The meeting was postponed indefinitely.
68. In the sentence "He argued the case passionately," the word "passionately" is:
a. An adjective of manner
b. An adverb of manner
 c. An adjective of degree
d. An adverb of degree
69. In the sentence "Her constant complaining is becoming a problem," the word"complaining" is:
a. Verb
b. Main verb
c. Gerund
d. Both A and C
70. In the sentence "She is as talented as her sister," the word "as" is:
a. Subordinating conjunction
b. Coordinating conjunction
c. Correlative conjunction
d. Not a conjunction
71. In the sentence “She considered it as important as the others,” the word "it" is:
a. Pronoun
b. Adjective
c. Noun
d. Both A and C

Fill in the blanks with correct options.

72. The team congratulated him his outstanding achievement.
a. For
b. On
c. To
d. With
73. The new project will commence Monday morning.
a. On
b. At
c. In
d. By
74. She has been struggling the issue for a long time.
a. On
b. With
c. By
d. Over
75. The company‟s profits have decreased the last quarter.
a. During
b. Over
c. In
d. At

In each of the following questions, a pair of words or phrases separated by colon (:)follows four related pairs of
words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
original pair.
76. TUMULT : CALM
a. Dispute : Resolution
b. Torment : Repose
c. Instability : Order
d. Obscurity : Clarity
77. ANTIPATHY : LOATHING
a. Curiosity : Wonder
b. Indifference : Apathy
c. Trust : Confidence
d. Rancour : Affection
78. ANARCHY : AUTHORITARIANISM
a. Freedom : Tyranny
b. Rebellion : Lawfulness
c. Liberalism : Conservatism
d. Equality : Hierarchy
79. FLORIST : FLORAL ARRANGEMENTS
a. Sculptor : Marble
b. Chef : Cuisine
c. Author : Novels
d. Musician : Composition
80. SYMPHONY : ORCHESTRA
a. Novel : Library
b. Film : Director
c. Poem : Poet
d. Song : Singer

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word provided.

81. EFFULGENT
a. Resplendent
b. Sombre
c. Murky
d. Insipid
82. OBSEQUIOUS
a. Rebellious
b. Servile
c. Arrogant
d. Boisterous
83. PARETO PRINCIPLE
a. The idea that most events are random
b. The notion that a few causes are responsible for most effects
c. The belief that hard work leads to inevitable success
d. The theory that all decisions should be based on a majority vote
84. SOPORIFIC
a. Lively
b. Sleep-inducing
c. Enthralling
d. Confusing
85. PULCHRITUDE
a. Virtue
b. Beauty
c. Intelligence
d. Kindness

Choose the option that is most nearly the opposite of the word provided.
86. PUSILLANIMOUS
a. Courageous
b. Timid
c. Indifferent
d. Effeminate
87. LACHRYMOSE
a. Joyful
b. Eloquent
c. Mournful
d. Playful
88. INVEIGLE
a. Coax
b. Repel
c. Entice
d. Exhort
89. RECONDITE
a. Obscure
b. Complex
c. Simple
d. Esoteric
90. EXCULPATE
a. Exonerate
b. Convict
c. Reprimand
d. Accuse

SECTION-IV (General Ability) 60 Marks

91. Find two numbers whose sum is 28 and the difference is 4 _______?
(a) 12, 16
(b) 18, 10
(c) 15, 13
(d) 14, 12
92. 40 is subtracted from 60 % of a number, the result is 50. Find the number?
(a) 150
(b) 140
(c) 130
(d) 110
93. 85 % of a number is added to 24, the result is the same number. Find the number?
(a) 150
(b) 140
(c) 130
(d) 160
94. 60 % of a number is added to 120, the result is the same number. Find the number?
(a) 300
(b) 200
(c) 400
(d) 500
95. 25 % of 30 % of 45 % is equal to _____?
(a) 0.03375
(b) 0.3375
(c) 3.375
(d) 33.75
96. 40 % of a number is more than 20 % of 650 by 190. Find the number?
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 800
(d) 900
97. How much is 80 % of 40 is greater than 4/5 of 25?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
98. After decreasing 24 % in the price of an article costs Rs. 912. Find the actual cost of an article?
(a) 1400
(b) 1300
(c) 1200
(d) 1100
99. What percent of 120 are 90?
(a) 25 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 75 %
(d) 33 %
100. Today is Khadija‟s birthday. After one year, she will become two times as she was ten years ago. Current age
of Khadija is?
 (a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 22
101. The average of two numbers is XY. If one number is equal to X, the other number is equal to _____?
(a) X
(b) 2Y
(c) XY - X
(d) 2XY – X
102. The average of first 10 even numbers is _____?
(a) 18
(b) 22
(c) 9
(d) 11
103. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of first six is 10.5 and that of the last six is 11.4. The sixth
number is _______?
(a) 11.0
(b) 11.3
(c) 11.4
(d) 11.5
104. The average of first ten prime numbers which are odd is _____?
(a) 12.9
(b) 13.8
(c) 15.8
(d) 17
105. The average of first 10 natural numbers is ______?
(a) 5
(b) 5.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 6
106. The average of first 10 odd numbers is _______?
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 17
107. The average age of three boys is 15 years and their ages are in proportion 3:5:7. What is the age in years of the
youngest boy?
(a) 15
(b) 9
(c) 18
(d) 21
108. In a fort, there is sufficient food for 600 men for a month. If 400 more men arrive the fort then how long the
food is sufficient for now?
(a) 20 days
(b) 18 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 36 days
109. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is
______?
(a) 1/13
(b) 2/13
(c) 1/26
(d) 1/52
110. What is the ratio of Faheem‟s salary to Imran‟s salary to Naveed‟s salary if Faheem makes 80,000 rupees,
Imran 70,000 rupees and Naveed makes 50,000 rupees?
(a) 80:70:60
 (b) 8:7:5
(c) 4:7:5
(d) 7:8:5
111. Find the mean proportion between 5 and 45.
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 50
112. The ratio of two numbers a and b is 3:5. If 2 is added to both the numbers, the ratio becomes 2:3. Find b?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 5
113. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 5:4. Find its perimeter if its area is 180 cm2.
(a) 54 cm
(b) 27 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 15 cm
114. The perimeter of a triangle is 81 cm. If the sides are in the ratio 4:3:2, find the length of the largest side.
(a) 45 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 36 cm
(d) 27 cm
115. A class has 90 students. If the ratio of boys and girls is 7:8, find the number of boys in the class.
(a) 48
(b) 42
(c) 60
(d) 70
116. If x % of 200 = y % of 250, find y: x.
(a) 5:4
(b) 5:2
(c) 2:5
(d) 4:5
117. Divide Rs. 2000 into two shares in the ratio 3:2.
(a) Rs. 1200, Rs. 800
(b) Rs. 800, Rs. 1200
(c) Rs. 1500, Rs. 500
(d) Rs. 1100, Rs. 900
118. The ratio of two numbers is 5:9. If each number is decreased by 5, the ratio becomes 5:11. Find the numbers.
(a) 30, 19
(b) 21, 37
(c) 15, 34
(d) 15, 27
119. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The average percent increase of
population per year is:
(a) 4.37 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 6 %
(d) 8.75 %
120. If 6 men take 9 days to complete a work, how many men can complete the work in 3 days?
(a) 2 men
(b) 12 men
(c) 9 men
(d) 18 men
121. Complete the series: 4,8,9,13,14,18, __?
(a) 22
 (b) 32
(c) 11
(d) 19
122. Which Muslim Scientist wrote first book on Algebra?
(a) Al-Khwarizmi
(b) Ibn Sina
(c) Archimedes
(d) Euclid
123. What is the largest known Prime Number?
(a) 282,589,933-3
(b) 282,589,933-1
(c) 282,589,933-5
(d) None of these
124. 1 acre is equal to _____ square foot.
(a) 45434 square feet
(b) 34343 square feet
(c) 43572 square feet
(d) 43560 square feet
125. The word Geometry has been derived from two Greek words: _______?
(a) Geo means Earth
(b) Metron means Measurement
(c) Hence Geometry means
(d) Earth measurement
126. Express 1.09 in term of Percentage.
(a) 1.09 %
(b) 10.9 %
(c) 109 %
(d) None of these
127. Calculate the Average of 1,2,3,4,5.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
128. Find the Missing Number in the series 1, 6,13, 22, 33, ?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 52
129. One Gross is equal to ________?
(a) 5 dozen
(b) 10 dozen
(c) 12 dozen
(d) None of these
130. Co-ordinates of Origin are: ______?
(a) (0,1)
(b) (1,1)
(c) (0,0)
(d) (1,0)
131. Zero is a ________ number?
(a) Odd number
(b) Even number
(c) Whole number
(d) None of these
132. A Quadrillion has ________ zeros?
(a) 15 zeros
(b) 18 zeros
 (c) 21 zeros
(d) None of these
133. Who is known as the Father of Geometry?
(a) Kepler
(b) Euclid
(c) Pythagoras
(d) Newton
134. Solve for x, 2x:25 = 6:(x/3)
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 5
135. P is 50 % more than q. Find the ratio of p to q.
(a) 3:2
(b) 1:5
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
136. The sum of squares of three numbers is 280. If the numbers are in the ratio 3:5:6, find the greatest number.
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 18
137. The sum of cubes of two numbers is 280. If the numbers are in the ratio 2:3, find the smallest number.
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 2
138. Find the fourth proportion to 3, 7 and 9.
(a) 63
(b) 31
(c) 21
(d) 27
139. What fraction of an hour is a second?
(a) 1/24
(b) 1/60
(c) 1/120
(d) 1/3600
140. The first even number is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
141. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
(a) 8.2
(b) 4.2
(c) 6.1
(d) 7.2
142. If Arif can read 39 pages of a book in half an hour. How long will it take him to finish a book that is 1287
pages?
(a) 16 hours
(b) 16.5 hours
(c) 17 hours
(d) 15.5 hours
143. Two taps X and Y can fill a tank in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. If the both taps are opened together,
the tank will be full in_________?
(a) 3 hours
 (b) 4 hours
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
144. If 6 men can make 10 sofas in 2 days, then 8 men can make 8 sofas in__________?
(a) 1.8 days
(b) 1.5 days
(c) 1.2 days
(d) 1 day
145. If 10 workers can make 10 tables in 10 days, then how many days would it take for 5 workers to make 5
tables?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 25
146. 10 shoes are placed at somewhere in room. What is probability that a pair of shoes will always be together?
(a) 8/10
(b) 2/5
(c) 1/5
(d) 9/10
147. „A‟ starts walking towards North, turns left, again turns left, turns right, again turns right. In which direction is
A walking now?
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
148. Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Seismology
(b) Terminology
(c) Cardiology
(d) Pedology
149. In a code language, FRIEND is written as GQJDOC. How will PEACE be written in that language?
(a) QFBBF
(b) ODBBF
(c) QDBBF
(d) QDBDF
150. When “SIR” is coded as “PSPIPR” then how MAN will be coded.
(a) PMANP
(b) PMPAPN
(c) NANP
(d) MPANP

SECTION-V (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE) 50 Marks

151. Which country joined the BRICS grouping in the 16th BRICS summit?
A) UAE
B) Turkey
C) Iran
D) Egypt
152. The 8th Future Investment Initiative (FII) in 2024 took place in which city?
A) Dubai
B) Riyadh
C) Doha
D) Jeddah
153. Who won the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize?
 A) Narges Mohammadi
B) Maria Ressa
C) UN Refugee Agency
D) Denis Mukwege
154. Which city hosted the 12th session of the Conference of Parties to the UN Convention against Transnational
Organized Crime (UNTOC) in 2024?
A) New York
B) Cali
C) Vienna
D) Baku
155. In September 2024, the United States rejoined which international body‟s scientific and cultural program after a
five-year hiatus?
A) WHO
B) UNESCO
C) IMF
D) IAEA
156. Israel‟s parliament recently passed a law banning the activities of which UN agency in Israel and occupied East
Jerusalem?
A) UNHCR
B) UNRWA
C) FAO
D) UNDP
157. On October 14, 2024, the United Nations observed the Day for Disaster Risk Reduction. What was the theme for
this year?
A) Disaster Resilience
B) Flood Management
C) Building Back Better
D) Climate Adaptation
158. Which country was removed from the U.S. Currency Monitoring List in 2024?
A) India
B) China
C) Vietnam
D) Thailand
159. Which country recently took over the rotating presidency of the European Union in 2024?
A) Germany
B) Belgium
C) Spain
D) Italy
160. The recent elections in Ecuador in 2024 resulted in the victory of which presidential candidate?
A) Rafael Correa
B) Luisa González
C) Daniel Noboa
D) Otto Sonnenholzner
161. Which country topped the World Bank‟s 2024 Ease of Doing Business rankings?
A) New Zealand
B) Singapore
C) Denmark
D) USA
162. When was the 45th Annual Forum of 'Parliamentarians for Global Action' held in 2024?
A) September 28-29
B) October 28-29
C) November 28-29
 D) December 28-29
163. Which international organization hosted the 'Water Summit' in October 2024?
A) UN
B) World Bank
C) NATO
D) OPEC
164. In October 2024, Pakistan witnessed an economic growth rate of:
A) 1.9%
B) 2.6%
C) 3.2%
D) 3.8%
165. Which two countries formalized diplomatic relations in September 2024 after years of tension?
A) North Korea and South Korea
B) Israel and Saudi Arabia
C) Turkey and Armenia
D) Egypt and Ethiopia
166. Which of the following is an example of Alloy?
a) Steel
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Oxygen
167. Which antioxidant vitamin helps protect against cell damage?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
168. What is the process of electron movement from one energy level to another?
a) Ionization
b) Excitation
c) Electron Transfer
d) Radiation
169. What is unit of force?
a) Newton
b) Joule
c) Kilogram
d) Meter
170. Process of heat transfer through direct contact?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Evaporation
171. Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgiappratus
c) Tysosomes
d) Ribosomes
172. What is the process of cell division resulting in four daughter cell?
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Apoptosis
d) Cytokinesis
173. What is normal blood pressure range?
 a) 80-120 mmHg
b) 140-180 mmHg
c) 180-220 mmHg
d) None
174. Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood to heart?
a) Artery
b) Vein
c) Capillary
d) Lymphatic vessel
175. Which type of rock is formed form Magma?
a) Igneous
b) Sedimentary
c) Metamorphic
d) Foliated
176. What is scientific term for study of weather?
a) Meteorology
b) Climatology
c) Geology
d) Astronomy
177. Movement of H2O form ground to atmosphere?
a) Evaporation
b) Condensation
c) Precipitation
d) Surface Runoff
178. Which food is rich in Vitamin A?
a) Carrot
b) Broccoli
c) Spinach
d) All of above
179. What is emission reduction target for developed countries under Kyoto protocol?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 30%
180. What is the life cycle stage of Sun?
a) Protostar
b) Main Sequence
c) Red Gaint
d) White Dwarf
181. Masjid Mahabat Khan is located in _______ ?
A. Mardan
B. Kohat
C. Hangu
D. Peshawar
182. Mangla dam is located in ____________?
A. Punjab
B. KPK
C. AJ&K
D. FATA
183. Sheena is a local language of __________ ?
A. Gilgit Baltistan
B. Sindh
C. Punjab
 D. None of them
184. The Indian Councils Act (Minto-Morley Reforms) was enacted into law in __________?
A. 1909
B. 1910
C. 1911
D. 1912
185. Rowlatt Act came into operation in __________?
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1919
D. 1920
186. India has constructed Baglihar Dam on the __________ river?
A. Chenab
B. Indus
C. Sutlej
D. Jhelum
187. Where is the Hasni tribe located in Pakistan ?
A. KPK
B. Punjab
C. Sindh
D. Balochistan
188. Boundary line between Azad Kashmir and Occupied Kashmir is called____________?
A. Line Of Control
B. Durand Line
C. Oder–Neisse line
D. The Radcliffe Line
189. In which year did East India Company (EIC) occupied Punjab ?
A. 1846
B. 1850
C. 1847
D. 1849
190. When did Lord Mountbatten arrive in Delhi as new Viceroy of India?
A. Feb 22, 1947
B. Mar 22, 1947
C. Apr 22, 1947
D. May 22, 1947
191. Which slave king is buried in Lahore?
A. Ibrahim Lodi
B. Ghiyas al-Din Balban
C. Iltutmish
D. Qutb uddin Aibak
192. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of partition of Bengal?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Minto
D. Lord Algan
193. Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942 to demand an end to British rule in India?
A) Non-Cooperation Movement
B) Civil Disobedience Movement
C) Quit India Movement
D) Khilafat Movement
194. The “Direct Action Day” was called by the Muslim League in which year?
A) 1939
B) 1940
 C) 1946
D) 1947
195. Which famous battle was fought in 1526, marking the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India?
A) Battle of Panipat
B) Battle of Khanwa
C) Battle of Chausa
D) Battle of Ghaghra
196. The construction of the famous city of Firozabad was done by which ruler?
A) Alauddin Khilji
B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
D) Ibrahim Lodi
197. The famous city of Agra was developed as a major city during the reign of which ruler?
A) Bahlul Lodhi
B) Babur
C) Ibrahim Lodhi
D) Shah Jahan
198. The "Mansabdari" system in the Mughal administration was introduced by:
A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Aurangzeb
D) Jahangir
199. Which Mughal emperor is known for his campaign in the Deccan region and the annexation of Bijapur and
Golconda?
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Aurangzeb
D) Shah Jahan
200. Which hotel in Paris is owned by Pakistan?
A) Ritz Paris
B) Four Seasons Hotel George V
C) Scribe Hotel
D) Le Meurice